Standards Under the Financial Institutions and Markets Act 2021: Financial Markets

N$63.20 WINDHOEK - 30 April 2026 No. 8904 GOVERNMENT GAZETTE OF THE REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA CONTENTS Page GENERAL NOTICE No. 268 Namibia Financial Institutions Supervisory Authority: Standards under the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021: Financial Markets .................................................................................................. 1

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General Notice NAMIBIA FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS SUPERVISORY AUTHORITY No. 268 2026 STANDARDS UNDER THE FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021: FINANCIAL MARKETS The standards, as set out in the Schedule, are published by the Namibia Financial Institutions Supervisory Authority (NAMFISA) under section 409 of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021). The standards come into effect on the date of publication in the Gazette. NAMIBIA FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS SUPERVISORY AUTHORITY

2 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 SCHEDULE FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS MATTERS TO BE INCLUDED BY A REGISTERED EXCHANGE IN ITS LISTING REQUIREMENTS Standard No. FM.S.3.1 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(4)(d) of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “Companies Act” means the Companies Act, 2004 (Act No. 28 of 2004); (c) “material” means any factual information about an issuer or securities issued which is likely or reasonably expected to influence on an investor’s decision; (d) “offer document” means a document containing information about an issuer or offer of securities whether referred to as a prospectus, a term sheet, notice, circular or by any other name and whether in printed or in electronic form, and includes the particulars specified in section 109(6) of the Companies Act; and (e) “prospectus” means a prospectus within the meaning of section 1 of the Companies Act. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following – (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) affiliate; (ii) associate; (iii) board; (iv) client; (v) director; and (vi) NAMFISA; (b) “control” as defined in section 3 of the Act; (c) as defined in section 78 of the Act –

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 3 (i) exchange; (ii) foreign exchange; (iii) issuer; (iv) listed security; and (v) security. Applicability 2. This Standard applies to every registered exchange, and includes an exchange re￾ferred to in section 86 of the Act. Listing requirements 3. (1) The listing requirements issued by a registered exchange pursuant to section 106(1) of the Act must, in addition to the requirements thereunder, set out the following pursuant to section 106(1)(h): (a) the form and manner in which a prospective issuer may apply for a listing of any security eligible to be listed or quoted on the exchange, including a prospectus or other offer document; (b) the listing fees and charges appropriate to the securities sought to be listed or quoted provided that the fees and charges are not prohibitive or serve as unnecessary barrier to potential issuers; (c) the founding documents and any supplementary documentation of the prospective issuer required to be submitted together with a prospectus, including shareholder or board resolutions authorizing the listing or quoting of securities on an exchange; (d) the provision of the last audited financial statements of the issuer or group if the issuer is part of a group of companies; (e) any reasonable requirements of the board of directors and executive management of the prospective issuer, including their fitness and propriety; (f) that the managing director or chief executive officer of the prospective issuer may not be the chairman of the board of the issuer; (g) that the prospective issuer may be required to have, at a minimum, an audit committee and a remuneration committee of the board, and such further committees the exchange may deem necessary having regard to the size of the issuer and the complexity of its business; (h) the name and address of every insider who, directly and indirectly, beneficially own 5% or more of any class of securities of the issuer; and (i) that the prospective issuer may not publish the prospectus without the prior approval of the exchange. (2) A registered exchange must provide in the listing requirements for cooperation with any foreign exchange on which securities listed or quoted on the exchange are listed

4 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 or quoted or the regulatory authority with oversight of such foreign exchange and for reciprocal action where the foreign exchange has taken action against the foreign issuer. (3) The listing requirements must set out the disclosure requirements or continuing obligations of issuers and provide for the adequate protection of sensitive issuer information. (4) The listing requirements must not set out matters that unduly prevent potential issuers from entering the exchange or from exiting the exchange, and must not be designed to allow entrance by issuers to the exchange which may pose undue risks to clients or entrance where it is not in the public interest. (5) The listing requirements must be designed to further the objects of the Act as provided in section 79, without prejudice to the objects of the exchange or of the issuer. (6) The prospective issuer must disclose to the exchange details concerning – (a) any legal or arbitration proceedings that have taken place in the previous 12 months and any that are pending or threatened, that might have a material effect on the financial position of the issuer or its affiliates or associates; (b) any material contracts entered or to be entered into by the issuer; (c) any person who controls the issuer within the meaning of the Act; and (d) the group, if the issuer is a member of a group. (7) The listing requirements must provide that issuers may not submit or publish documents or information that is misleading, deceptive or false in a material respect and must provide for penalties or remedial action for such conduct, including barring a prospective issuer from listing or quoting securities on the exchange.

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8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 5 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS ANNUAL REPORT OF SELF-REGULATORY ORGANISATION Standard No. FM.S.3.2 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(4)(p) of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “clearing” means clear as defined in section 78 of the Act; (c) “CSD” means a central securities depository as defined in the Act; (d) “settlement” means settle as defined in section 78 of the Act; and (e) “transaction” has the meaning ascribed thereto by section 78 of the Act, but for the purposes of this Standard also includes any other transfer, e.g., by way of a gift, testamentary disposition, cession, or pledge, of listed securities outside the registered exchange on which such securities are listed. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following - (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) auditor; (ii) board; (iii) client; (iv) director; (v) financial year; and (vi) NAMFISA; (b) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) authorised user; (ii) central securities depository; (iii) exchange;

6 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (iv) exchange rules; (v) foreign exchange; (vi) issuer; (vii) listed security; (viii) participant; (ix) security; and (x) self-regulatory organisation. Applicability 2. This Standard applies to every self-regulatory organisation and includes an exchange referred to in section 86 of the Act. General requirements 3. (1) A self-regulatory organisation must submit to the registrar within 90 days after the end of its financial year an annual report that must contain the following information: (a) a list of the members of the board of the self-regulatory organisation and any changes thereto over the last financial year; (b) a list of members of the executive management of the self-regulatory organisation and any changes thereto over the last financial year; (c) a list of authorised users or participants of the self-regulatory organisation and any changes thereto over the last financial years; (d) a report by the chairperson of the board or the principal officer responsible for reviewing the operations of the self-regulatory organisation, including delegated functions, over the last financial year; (e) the auditor’s report on financial statements; (f) a summary of market information which must reflect the salient features of the trading, clearing and settlement, depository or other activities, as applicable, of the self- regulatory organisation and disciplinary or remedial actions taken or penalties imposed by the self-regulatory organisation; (g) a report detailing the self-regulatory organisation’s initiatives and plans to comply with governance requirements under the Act or to implement any recommended governance principles or standards; and (h) a report on risk management, operational integrity and related issues. Requirements for registered exchange 4. Where the self-regulatory organisation is a registered exchange, the annual report must also contain:

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 7 (a) the surveillance program and compliance plan with respect to the exchange rules, including trading, clearing and settlement of securities transactions; (b) compliance by issuers with the listing requirements and disclosure requirements, and a summary of applications refused, suspended or removed with reasons; (c) capital raised during the financial year; (d) a summary of, and the appropriation of penalties imposed, if any; (e) any levy imposed under section 110 of the Act and appropriation thereof; (f) arrangements with respect to segregation and management of trust property of clients; and (g) any other matter pertaining to the operation of the registered exchange. Requirements for registered CSD 5. Where the self-regulatory organisation is a registered CSD, the annual report must also contain: (a) a description of supervisory developments in relation to the depository rules, repository of securities, and the central securities account; (b) a reconciliation of central securities accounts with the records of the issuers; (c) a list and a description of uncertificated securities administered and maintained by its participants; (d) a description of any matter pertaining to the ownership, registration, transfer or pledge or cession of securities or any attachment of interest; (e) a description of developments in the settlement regime of the CSD, including measures put in place to prevent, monitor and address settlement fails; and (f) any other matter pertaining to the operation of the registered CSD. General requirements 6. (1) A self-regulatory organisation must put policies and procedures in place to ensure that the annual report submitted to NAMFISA complies with the requirements of this Stan￾dard and that the annual report is signed by a duly authorised person and submitted within the speci￾fied time limit. (2) The board of the self-regulatory organisation must assume the responsibility for the annual report.

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8 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS MATTERS TO BE INCLUDED IN A REPORT REFERRED TO IN SECTION 113 OF THE ACT AND THE MANNER AND TIMING OF SUCH REPORT Standard No. FM.S.3.3 issued by NAMFISA under sections 113 and 410(4)(h) of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “NAMFISA ERS” means the Electronic Regulatory System which facilitates communication between NAMFISA and financial institutions or financial intermediaries; and (c) “transaction” has the meaning ascribed thereto by section 78 of the Act, but for the purposes of this Standard also includes any other transfer, e.g., by way of a gift, testamentary disposition, cession, or pledge, of listed securities outside the registered exchange on which such securities are listed. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following - (a) “NAMFISA” as defined in section 1 of the Act; (b) “control” as defined in section 3 of the Act; (c) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) exchange; (ii) foreign exchange; and (iii) regulated person. Applicability
2. This Standard applies to every person, including a regulated person, who concludes a transaction in listed securities outside a registered exchange which results in a change of control of beneficial ownership of those securities.

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 9 Filing of report 3. (1) Every person who concludes any transaction in listed securities outside a registered exchange which results in a change in control of beneficial ownership, must simultaneously report such transaction to NAMFISA and the exchange on which the securities are listed within two days after the conclusion of the transaction. (2) The report referred to in sub-clause (1) must be submitted electronically to NAMFISA on the NAMFISA ERS and to the registered exchange on which the securities concerned are listed. (3) Where necessary and when so directed by NAMFISA, specified information or documentation must be submitted manually to NAMFISA. Content of report 4. The report referred to in clause 3 must contain the following information: (a) the name and address of the person or persons who have acquired beneficial ownership of the securities and if any of those persons is a regulated person, the type of registration of that person; (b) the name of the transaction; (c) the type and number of securities; (d) whether the securities are convertible; (e) the consideration, if any, paid; (f) whether the person or persons who have acquired control of beneficial ownership had any beneficial ownership in those securities prior to the transaction; (g) the name and address of the person or persons from whom control of beneficial ownership of the securities was acquired and if any of those persons is a regulated person, the type of registration of that person; (h) the relationship among the persons referred to in paragraphs (a) and (g); (i) the name and address of the registered exchange on which the securities concerned are listed; and (j) the reasons why the transaction was concluded outside the registered exchange.

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10 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS INFORMATION ABOUT AN ISSUER AND SECURITIES BEING ISSUED BY THE ISSUER TO CLIENTS OR POTENTIAL CLIENTS OF A REGULATED PERSON, WHEN THE SECURITIES ARE BEING SOLD BY OR THROUGH THE SERVICES OF THAT REGULATED PERSON Standard No. FM.S.3.4 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(4)(r) of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “Companies Act” means the Companies Act, 2004 (Act No. 28 of 2004); (c) “equity securities” means shares as defined in section 1 of the Companies Act; (d) “material” means any factual information about an issuer or securities issued which is likely or reasonably expected to influence and investor’s decision; (e) “NAMFISA ERS” means the Electronic Regulatory System which facilitates communication between NAMFISA and financial institutions or financial intermediaries; (f) “non-equity security” means securities that are not equity securities; (g) “offer” means to sell or offer to sell any security to a client or potential client for valuable considerations; (h) “offer document” means a document containing information about an issuer or offer of securities whether referred to as a prospectus, a term sheet, notice, circular or by any other name and whether in printed or in electronic form, and includes the particulars specified in section 109(6) of the Companies Act; and (i) “prospectus” means a prospectus within the meaning of section 1 of the Companies Act. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following – (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) affiliate; (ii) associate;

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 11 (iii) client; (iv) director; (v) foreign entity; and (vi) NAMFISA; (b) “control” as defined in section 3 of the Act – (c) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) exchange; (ii) foreign exchange; (iii) issuer; (iv) listed security; (v) regulated person; and (vi) security. Applicability 2. (1) This Standard applies to every regulated person to the extent that securities are sold by or through the services of that regulated person and to the issuer of those securities. (2) Where the Standard is applicable to a regulated person, that regulated person must provide the information on the matters referred to in the applicable sub-clauses below to clients or potential clients. Required information 3. (1) Without prejudice to any requirement under the Companies Act, the regulated person concerned must provide the following information about an issuer: (a) the name, address, date and place of incorporation and registration of the issuer; (b) a brief summary of the business activities or proposed business activities of the issuer; (c) a brief history of the issuer since incorporation including any restructuring, re￾organisation or mergers or acquisitions, changes in its capital structure, and borrowings, if any; (d) if the issuer is a foreign entity, its country of incorporation and date of registration in Namibia; (e) a copy of the most recent audited annual financial statements and interim report of the issuer;

12 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (f) details of any person that controls the issuer, and if the issuer is part of a group, a description of the group and the issuer’s position in the group; (g) names, occupations and addresses of the directors of the issuer, including whether executive or non-executive, and their terms of office; (h) details of the auditor of the issuer and the date of appointment, and the names of the trustees under the trust deed under which any debentures were issued or are proposed to be issued; and (i) a description of the capital structure of the issuer, including without limitation, equity and non-equity securities. (2) In addition to any disclosures required under the Companies Act, the regulated person concerned must provide the following information about the securities being issued or proposed to be issued by the issuer: (a) a full description of the securities, including, without limitation, any voting, conversion, dividend and redemption rights, as applicable, and the amount, exercise price, expiration date and purchase price of options or share warrants, if any, and in the case of debentures, whether secured or unsecured; (b) the class of securities and nominal value; (c) the number and price of the securities being issued; (d) the purpose for which the proceeds of sale of the securities will be used; (e) the terms of the offer, including any rights that the client or proposed client may have to cancel an agreement to purchase the securities; (f) the particulars of any debt securities being issued including any issue of debt securities in the past; (g) the debt to equity ratio of the issuer prior to and after the issue of the securities; (h) the rating, if any, of the securities by a rating agency; (i) the tax consequences, if any, of the acquisition of the securities; (j) if the issuer or any person that controls the issuer is an affiliate or associate of the regulated person, the relationship between the regulated person and the issuer or person; and (k) the name of every registered exchange or foreign exchange on which the issuer’s securities are listed or are proposed to be listed and whether in-principle approval has been obtained from the relevant exchange. (2) The report must be submitted electronically to NAMFISA on the NAMFISA ERS and to the registered exchange on which the securities concerned are listed. (3) If necessary and when so directed by NAMFISA, specified documentation or information must be submitted manually to NAMFISA.

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 13 Time periods 4. The regulated person concerned must provide the offer document to clients or potential clients within a reasonable period before the closing date of the offer to enable the clients or potential clients to make informed decisions. Disclosures 5. (1) If the issuer or any person that controls the issuer is an affiliate or associate of the regulated person concerned, the regulated person concerned must disclose the relationship between the regulated person and the issuer or the person. (2) In addition to any relationship between the issuer or a person that controls the issuer and the regulated person described in clause 3(2)(j), the regulated person must identify and disclose to the client or potential client any other conflicts of interest that exist or that might arise between the regulated person and the issuer or between the regulated person and the client or potential client, as a result of the offer of the securities to the client or potential client. (3) The regulated person must inform the client or potential client whether, in the opinion of the regulated person, the securities are a suitable investment given the investment needs and objectives, the financial circumstances and the risk tolerance of the client or potential client. (4) The issuer must ensure that the regulated person provides the offer documents to clients or potential clients and that the offer documents: (a) contain material disclosures to enable clients or potential clients to make informed decisions; (b) contain information that is not misleading in a material respect or that is calculated to be manipulative or deceptive; (c) are truthful, fair and in plain language as may be provided in any standard issued by NAMFISA; (d) do not contain a statement, promise or forecast which is not factual or constitutes a misrepresentation in the circumstances under which these are made; (e) are not based on matters which are extraneous to the contents of the offer document; (f) state the time limit for the validity of the offer documents; (g) include the memorandum of association and articles of the issuer; (h) include the listing approval by a registered exchange or a foreign exchange, if any; and (i) include a copy of the trust deed relating to debentures issued or proposed to be issued. (5) Where there are any material changes to the matters contained in an offer document, the regulated person must ensure that the changes are effected and that the clients or potential clients to whom an offer document was provided or is about to be provided are notified of these changes forthwith but in any event before the clients or potential clients are expected to make a decision.

14 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (6) The regulated person and the issuer must ensure that offer documents are in the public interest and enhance confidence in the capital markets. (7) NAMFISA may issue a directive to the regulated person concerned to take specified remedial action and may impose penalties, as prescribed by the Minister, for any contravention of this Standard.

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8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 15 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS DEMUTUALISATION OF A SELF-REGULATORY ORGANISATION Standard No. FM.S.3.5 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(4)(n) of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “business day” means any day except a Saturday, Sunday, public holiday or any other day on which the self-regulatory organisation is closed; (c) “demutualisation” means the process by which a self-regulatory organisation changes its legal status from an organisation or association not incorporated under the Companies Act and owned by its members, into a company having share capital and incorporated under the Companies Act; (d) “demutualised self-regulatory organisation” means a self-regulatory organisation following the completion of demutualisation on the demutualisation date; (e) “facility” when used with respect to a self-regulatory organisation includes its premises, tangible or intangible property whether on the premises or not, any right to the use of such premises or property or any service thereof for the purpose of effecting or reporting a transaction (including, among other things, any system of communication to or from the self-regulatory organisation, by ticker or otherwise, maintained by or with the consent of the self-regulatory organisation), and any right of the self-regulatory organisation to the use of any property or service; (f) “member” means a person who is designated as a member of a self-regulatory organisation in accordance with its constitutive documents and rules; and (g) “ticker” means a telegraphic or electronic receiving machine or instrument that automatically prints out data on stock market information or news reports on a strip of paper. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following: (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) affiliate; (ii) auditor; (iii) authorised user;

16 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (iv) board; (v) Companies Act; (vi) corporate body; (vii) NAMFISA; (viii) officer; and (ix) valuator; (b) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) exchange; (ii) issuer; (iii) listing requirements; (iv) securities advisor; (v) securities dealer; (vi) self-regulatory organisation; and (vii) stockbroker. Resolutions for demutualisation 2. (1) Prior to making an application to NAMFISA for the approval of its demutualisation, in accordance with its constitutive documents, and subject to the provisions of this Standard – (a) a self-regulatory organisation must adopt, at a general meeting of the members, of which not less than 14 clear days’ notice has been given, a resolution that it must be converted from a mutual organisation or a voluntary association of members into a company having a share capital and incorporated under the Companies Act; and (b) a self-regulatory organisation must adopt, at a general meeting of which not less than 21 clear days’ notice has been given, specifying the intention to propose the resolution as a special resolution, the terms and effect of the resolution and the reasons for it, a special resolution – (i) on the proposed allotment of shares to the initial shareholders of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation; and (ii) approving the proposed memorandum and articles of association of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation. (2) The notices referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b) of sub-clause (1) shall be exclusive of the day on which they are served or deemed to be served, and of the day for which they are given. (3) The notice must be given in the manner and form provided for in the self-regulatory organisation’s constitutive documents, provided that where notice is given by post, it shall be deemed

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 17 to be served on the seventh day after posting, and where such seventh day falls on a non-business day, the next business day thereafter. (4) Where the notice is published on the website, if so authorised by its constitutive documents, the notice must be available on the website throughout the period beginning with the date of that notification and ending with the conclusion of the meeting. (5) Any person entitled to receive notice, attend and vote at a general meeting, is entitled to appoint another person, whether a member or not, as proxy to attend, speak, and vote in that person’s stead at any general meeting, and the form appointing such a proxy shall be deemed to confer authority to demand or join in demanding a poll, and a demand by a person as proxy for a member is the same as a demand by the member. (6) The form appointing a proxy must be in writing under the hand of the appointer or of his agent duly authorised in writing, or, if the appointer is a corporate body, under the hand of an officer or agent authorised by that body. (7) Any person, present and entitled to vote as a member or as a proxy of a member or as a representative of a corporate body at any general meeting, has, on a show of hands, only one vote irrespective of the number of rights that such person holds or represents. 3. (1) A resolution which is adopted in terms of clause 2(1)(b), other than a resolution referred to in clause 2(1)(a) adopted by an exchange, is of no force and effect unless - (a) there are present at that general meeting, in person as a member or as a proxy of a member or as a representative of a corporate body holding in the aggregate not less than 25% of the total votes of all the members entitled to vote; and (b) the resolution has been passed, on a show of hands, by not less than 75% of the number of members entitled to vote on a show of hands at the meeting or, where a poll has been demanded, by not less than 75% of the total votes to which the members present in person or as a proxy of a member or as a representative of a corporate body are entitled. (2) If less than 25% of the total votes of all the members entitled to attend the general meeting and to vote are present or represented at a general meeting called for the purpose of passing a special resolution, the general meeting stands adjourned to a day not earlier than seven days and not later than 21 days after the date of the meeting. (3) Where a general meeting has been adjourned as aforesaid, the self-regulatory organisation shall, upon a date not later than three days after the adjournment, publish in two newspapers circulating widely in Namibia, a notice stating – (a) the date, time and place to which the meeting has been adjourned; (b) the matter before the meeting when it was adjourned; and (c) the ground(s) for the adjournment. (4) At the adjourned meeting, the members who are present in person or as a proxy of a member or as a representative of a corporate body and are entitled to vote may deal with the business for which the original meeting was convened, and a resolution passed by not less than 75% of those members is deemed to be a special resolution, even if less than 25% of the total votes are represented at that adjourned meeting.

18 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 Application for demutualisation 4. (1) The self-regulatory organisation shall not be considered to be a demutualised self-regulatory organisation unless it has obtained written approval of NAMFISA in accordance with this Standard. (2) An application to NAMFISA for approval of the demutualisation of a self-regulatory organisation must be accompanied by the following additional documents and information: (a) every resolution adopted by the self-regulatory organisation pursuant to clause 2; (b) a valuation report of the self-regulatory organisation based on any internationally accepted method of valuation undertaken by a valuator; (c) the proposed authorised share capital of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation; (d) the proposed total issued share capital of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation; (e) the names of members of the self-regulatory organisation who are proposed to be the initial shareholders of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation and the number and value of shares to be allotted to each such shareholder; (f) the valuation methodology or conversion ratio applied in determining the equitable split of shareholding amongst members of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation and the methodology for determining the value per one right of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation; (g) information regarding its insurance, a guarantee fund, a compensation fund or other warranty to enable it to provide compensation to clients; (h) the proposed memorandum and articles of association of the demutualised self￾regulatory organisation; (i) the proposed plan for the independent management of the commercial and regulatory functions of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation and timelines for implementation of necessary structures to ensure the functional separation of commercial and regulatory functions; (j) a detailed five-year business development plan for the demutualised self-regulatory organisation together with the capital expenditure estimates and the sources of finance for the five-year period; (k) the manner in which the rights and liabilities of the existing members shall be treated in the demutualisation; (l) the proposed timelines for the completion of operational manuals to guide the self￾regulatory functions of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation detailing the scope of regulatory functions to be performed by the demutualised self-regulatory organisation; (m) the proposed rules of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation; (n) if the self-regulatory organisation is an exchange, the proposed listing requirements of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation;

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 19 (o) the most recent audited annual financial statements of the self-regulatory organisation; (p) the risk assessment and mitigation framework for the assessment and mitigation of risks associated with the demutualisation; and (q) the proposed policies to address conflicts of interest at the demutualised self￾regulatory organisation. (3) Before making an application for approval referred to in sub-clause (2), the applicant must give notice of the proposed application, once in each three consecutive weeks in two newspapers circulating widely in Namibia at the expense of the applicant. (4) The notice referred to in sub-clause (3) must state – (a) the name of the self-regulatory organisation; (b) the intention of the self-regulatory organisation to demutualise; (c) the place where the proposed rules of the demutualised self-regulatory organisation may be inspected by members of the public; (d) the place where the proposed listing requirements, in case of an exchange, may be inspected by members of the public; and (e) the period within which, and the manner in which, objections to the proposed application, rules or listing requirements, as the case may be, may be lodged with NAMFISA by the members of the public, not being less than 30 days from the date of the last publication of the notice. (5) NAMFISA may, in writing, direct the self-regulatory organisation to provide any additional information which NAMFISA may require. Approval 5. (1) NAMFISA may, if it considers it necessary, direct the self-regulatory organisation to make appropriate amendments to the documents and information submitted with an application under clause 4. (2) Upon receipt of all the information submitted under clause 4 and subject to any amendments under sub-clause (1), NAMFISA may approve the application with or without conditions. (3) Every approval required pursuant to this Standard shall be subject to the fit and proper requirements within the meaning of the Act. Shareholding and voting rights 6. If the self-regulatory organisation is an exchange – (a) no person shall, as from the demutualisation date, hold directly or indirectly, more than 10% of the voting shares of the exchange without the prior approval of NAMFISA; (b) the trading members of the exchange shall, with effect from the demutualisation date, reduce their cumulative shareholding in the demutualised exchange to not more than 40% within three years; and

20 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (c) no person shall, as from the demutualisation date, in a general meeting, exercise voting rights, directly or indirectly, of more than 10% of the total voting rights. Governance – board 7. (1) The demutualised self-regulatory organisation must be governed by a board. (2) The board of a self-regulatory organisation must be composed of a majority of independent directors. (3) The board must have a written charter setting out the roles and responsibilities of the board, including procedures for its functioning and procedures for identifying, addressing and managing conflicts of interest. (4) The self-regulatory organisation must adopt rules implementing governance guidelines that, at a minimum, establish policies regarding – (a) director qualification standards; (b) director responsibilities; (c) director access to management and independent advisors; (d) director compensation; (e) director orientation and continuing education; (f) management succession; and (g) annual performance evaluations of the board. (5) The self-regulatory organisation must, at a minimum, have the following board committees: (a) nominating committee; (b) governance committee; (c) compensation committee; (d) audit committee; and (e) regulatory oversight committee, or their equivalent. (6) Each of the board committees must report to the board. (7) All board committees must be composed of a majority of independent directors and must be chaired by an independent director. (8) Each board committee must have the authority to direct and supervise inquiries into any matter brought to its attention within the scope of its duties, and to obtain advice and assistance from independent legal counsel and other advisors as it deems necessary to carry out its duties. (9) The self-regulatory organisation must provide sufficient funding and other resources, as determined by each board committee, to permit the board committees to fulfil their responsibilities and to retain independent legal counsel and other advisors.

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 21 (10) The nominating committee must have a written charter that addresses the nominating committee’s purpose and responsibilities, which, at a minimum, must be to identify individuals qualified to become board members, consistent with criteria approved by the board and administer a process for the nomination of individuals to the board. (11) The governance committee must have a written charter that addresses the committee’s purpose and responsibilities, which, at a minimum, must be to develop and recommend to the board a set of governance principles applicable to the self-regulatory organisation and to oversee the evaluation of the board and management. (12) The governance committee must conduct an annual performance evaluation of the governance of the self-regulatory organisation, including the effectiveness of the board and its committees. (13) The compensation committee must have a written charter that addresses the compensation committee’s purpose and responsibilities, which, at a minimum, must be to have – (a) direct responsibility to review and approve corporate goals and objectives relevant to the compensation of the executive officers of the self-regulatory organisation; (b) evaluate the performance of the executive officers in light of those goals and objectives, and (c) consider and approve recommendations with respect to the compensation level of the executive officers, based on this evaluation. (14) The audit committee must have a written charter that addresses the audit committee’s purpose and responsibilities, which, at a minimum, must be to assist the board in oversight of the – (a) integrity of the self-regulatory organisation’s financial statements; (b) self-regulatory organisation’s compliance with related legal and regulatory requirements; (c) qualifications and independence of the self-regulatory organisation’s auditor, including – (i) direct responsibility for the appointment, disengagement, termination and compensation of the auditor; (ii) overseeing the auditor’s engagement; (iii) meeting regularly with the auditor; (iv) reviewing the auditor’s reports with respect to the self-regulatory organisation’s internal controls; (v) pre-approving all audit and non-audit services performed by the auditor; (vi) determination of the budget and staffing of the self-regulatory organisation’s internal audit department; and (vii) establishment of procedures for the receipt of complaints regarding accounting, internal accounting controls, or auditing matters of the self-

22 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 regulatory organisation and the confidential submission by employees of the self-regulatory organisation of concerns regarding questionable accounting or auditing matters. (15) The regulatory oversight committee must have a written charter that addresses the regulatory oversight committee’s purpose and responsibilities, which, at a minimum, must be to – (a) assure the adequacy and effectiveness of the regulatory program of the self-regulatory organisation; (b) assess the self-regulatory organisation’s regulatory performance; (c) determine the regulatory plan, programs, budget, and staffing for the regulatory functions of the self-regulatory organisation; (d) assess the performance of, and recommend compensation and personnel actions involving, the chief regulatory officer and other senior regulatory personnel to the compensation committee; (e) monitor and review regularly with the chief regulatory officer matters relating to the self-regulatory organisation’s surveillance, examination, and enforcement units; (f) assure that the self-regulatory organisation’s disciplinary and arbitration proceedings are conducted in accordance with the self-regulatory organisation’s rules and policies and any other applicable laws or rules, including those of the NAMFISA; (g) prior to the self-regulatory organisation’s approval of an affiliated security for listing, certify that such security meets the self-regulatory organisation’s rules for listing; and (h) approve reports filed with NAMFISA. (16) The self-regulatory organisation may establish such other committees of the board as it deems appropriate, on condition that if such committee has the authority to act on behalf of the board, the committee must be composed of a majority of independent directors. (17) The self-regulatory organisation may not delegate to any committee not consisting solely of independent directors the authority to act on matters that otherwise are within the jurisdiction of a board committee. Independence 8. (1) No director may qualify as an independent director unless the board affirmatively determines that the director has no direct or indirect material relationship with the self￾regulatory organisation or any of its affiliates. (2) The board must make the determination referred to under sub-clause (1) upon the director’s nomination or appointment to the board and thereafter no less frequently than annually and as often as necessary in light of the director’s circumstances. (3) A director is not independent, unless he has no direct or indirect material relationship with the self-regulatory organisation or any affiliate of the self- regulatory organisation, any authorised user of the self-regulatory organisation or any affiliate of such authorised user, or any issuer that are listed or traded on a facility of the self-regulatory organisation.

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 23 (4) For the purposes of sub-clauses (1) and (3), a “material relationship” is a relationship which could, in the view of the self-regulatory organisation’s board, be reasonably expected to interfere with the exercise of a member’s independent judgement. (5) Despite sub-clause (4), the following individuals are considered to have a material relationship with the self-regulatory organisation – (a) an individual who is, or has been within the last three years, an employee or executive officer of the self-regulatory organisation; (b) an individual whose immediate family member is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of the self-regulatory organisation; (c) an individual who – (i) is a partner of a firm that is the self-regulatory organisation’s internal or external auditors; (ii) is an employee of that firm; or (iii) was within the last three years a partner or employee of that firm and personally worked on the self-regulatory organisation’s audit within that time; (d) an individual whose spouse, minor child or stepchild, or child or stepchild who shares a home with the individual – (i) is a partner of a firm that is the self-regulatory organisation’s internal or external auditors; (ii) is an employee of that firm and participates in its audit, assurance or tax compliance (but not tax planning) practice; or (iii) was within the last three years a partner or employee of that firm and personally worked on the self-regulatory organisation’s audit within that time; (e) an individual who, or whose immediate family member, is or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of an entity, if any of the self- regulatory organisation’s current executive officers serves or served at that same time, on the entity’s compensation committee; and (f) an individual who received, or whose immediate family member who is employed as an executive officer of the self-regulatory organisation received more than N$75,000.00 in direct compensation from the self-regulatory organisation during any 12-month period within the last three years. (6) Despite sub-clause (5), an individual will not be considered to have a material relationship with the self-regulatory organisation solely because – (a) the individual had a relationship identified in sub-clause (5) if that relationship ended three years prior to the appointment; or (b) the individual had a relationship considered to be material under this clause with the subsidiary of the self-regulatory organisation that ended three years prior to the appointment.

24 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (7) For the purposes of sub-clauses (5)(c) and (5)(d), a partner does not include a fixed income partner whose interest in the firm that is the internal or external auditor is limited to the receipt of fixed amounts of compensation (including deferred compensation) for prior service with that firm if the compensation is not contingent in any way on continued service. (8) For the purposes of sub-clause (5)(f), direct compensation does not include: (a) remuneration for acting as a member of the board of directors or of any board committee of the self-regulatory organisation; and (b) the receipt of fixed amounts of compensation under a retirement plan (including deferred compensation) for prior service with the self- regulatory organisation if the compensation is not contingent in any way on continued service. (9) Despite sub-clause (5), an individual will not be considered to have a material relationship with the self-regulatory organisation solely because the individual or their immediate family member – (a) has previously acted as an interim chief executive officer of the self- regulatory organisation; or (b) acts, or has previously acted, as a chair or vice-chair of the board of directors or of any board committee of the self-regulatory organisation on a part-time basis. (10) The self-regulatory organisation must include industry representatives on its board, of which at least one director must be representative of issuers and at least one director must be representative of investors, and, in each case, such director must not be associated with an authorised user, stockbroker, securities advisor or securities dealer. (11) When the board considers any matter that is recommended by, or otherwise is within the authority or jurisdiction of a board committee, a majority of the directors who vote on the matter must be independent directors. (12) The self-regulatory organisation must establish policies and procedures to require each director, on their own initiative and upon request of the self-regulatory organisation, to inform the self-regulatory organisation of the existence of any relationship or interest that may reasonably be considered to bear on whether such director is an independent director. (13) If the self-regulatory organisation fails to comply with the requirement that the board be composed of a majority of independent directors because there is a vacancy on the board or a director ceases to be independent, it must comply with this requirement by the earlier of its next annual meeting or one year from the date of the occurrence of the event that caused the failure to comply with this requirement. (14) The self-regulatory organisation must establish procedures for interested persons to communicate their concerns regarding any matter within the authority or jurisdiction of a board committee directly to the independent directors. (15) The independent directors must have the authority to direct and supervise inquiries into any matter brought to their attention within the scope of their duties and to obtain advice and assistance from independent legal counsel and other advisors as they determine necessary to carry out their duties. (16) The self-regulatory organisation must provide sufficient funding and other resources, as determined by the independent directors, to permit the independent directors to fulfil their responsibilities, and to retain independent legal counsel and other advisors.

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 25 (17) The self-regulatory organisation must adopt, implement and maintain policies to ensure the enhancement of market integrity, market efficiency, and investor protection. Regulatory programme 9. (1) The self-regulatory organisation must establish policies and procedures to assure the independence of its regulatory programme from its market operations or other commercial interests. (2) The self-regulatory organisation’s regulatory programme must be – (a) structurally separated from the market operations and other commercial interests of the self-regulatory organisation by means of separate legal entities; or (b) functionally separated within the same legal entity from the market operations and other commercial interests of the self-regulatory organisation. (3) The board must appoint a chief regulatory officer to administer the regulatory programme of the self-regulatory organisation, and the chief regulatory officer must report directly to the regulatory oversight committee. (4) Any funds received by the self-regulatory organisation from regulatory fees, fines, or penalties must be applied only to fund programmes and operations directly related to such self￾regulatory organisation’s regulatory responsibilities. (5) The self-regulatory organisation must make and keep books and records necessary to demonstrate compliance with the requirement in sub-clause (4).

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26 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS MINIMUM CAPITAL, CAPITAL ADEQUACY, SOLVENCY AND LIQUIDITY REQUIREMENTS FOR INVESTMENT MANAGERS, AND THE CONDUCT OF THE BUSINESS OF INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT Standard No. FM.S.3.6 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(2)(l) and (q) of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “asset” means a present economic resource, a right or other source of value that is capable of producing economic benefits and is controlled by a natural or legal person as a result of past events, including money of any currency; (c) “bank” means a body of persons, whether incorporated or not, that carries on the business of banking, and includes the Bank of Namibia referred to in section 2 of the Bank of Namibia Act, 2020 (Act No. 1 of 2020), a banking institution defined in section 1 of the Banking Institutions Act, 1998 (Act No. 2 of 1998), and the Post Office Savings Bank as defined in section 1 of the Posts and Telecommunications Act, 1992 (Act No. 19 of 1992); (d) “banker’s acceptance” means a bill as defined in the Bills of Exchange Act, 2003 (Act No. 22 of 2003), drawn on, accepted and guaranteed by a bank and representing a promised future payment by that bank; (e) “bond” means an acknowledgement of debt in which the issuer or guarantor undertakes to repay the principal debt together with interest on the maturity of the debt to the holder of the bond; (f) “commercial paper” means a negotiable short-term financial instrument which is an acknowledgement of debt issued by an entity, whether backed by assets or not; (g) “conflict of interest” means a situation which a person encounters, while rendering a financial service to a client, if that situation – (i) impairs the objectivity of the person in any aspect of rendering the financial service to the client; or (ii) prevents the person from rendering the financial service to the client in an unbiased and fair manner or from acting in the best interest of the client; (h) “debenture” means a debenture stock, debenture bond and any other financial instrument, whether constituting a charge on the assets of the issuer or not;

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 27 (i) “debt security” means a financial instrument issued by an issuer, evidencing or acknowledging the liability of the issuer to repay an amount of money specified in the security, subject to the conditions to which the security is issued; (j) “deposit” means an amount of money paid by a person to a bank subject to an agreement in terms of which the full amount of money, or any part thereof, will, conditionally or unconditionally, and with or without interest or a premium, be repaid to such person – (i) on demand; (ii) at a specified or unspecified date; (iii) after a predetermined period of time; (iv) after a predetermined period of notice of withdrawal; or (v) subject to an agreement entered into by the parties concerned; (k) “financial instrument” means any contract that gives rise to a financial asset of one entity and a financial liability or equity instrument of another entity; (l) “financial market” means any market where the buying and selling of securities take place; (m) “issuer” means an issuer of securities, including an issuer of money market instruments; (n) “investment” means an asset or item acquired with the goal of generating income or appreciation, where appreciation refers to an increase in the value of an asset over time; (o) “liquid asset” means – (i) any amount of cash consisting of Bank of Namibia notes and coins; (ii) any balance in an account with a bank, branch of a foreign institution which is authorised in terms of the Banking Institutions Act, 1998, to conduct the business of a bank by means of such branch or a foreign bank; (iii) any positive balance in a settlement account, other than a margin account, operated for the purpose of buying and selling of underlying assets; (iv) money market instrument; (v) participatory interest in a money market portfolio,on condition that the assets in sub-paragraphs (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) are capable of being converted, without any penalty on capital in terms of the conditions of the asset, into cash within a period not exceeding seven days; (p) “marketable securities” means financial instruments that can easily be bought, sold or traded, are very liquid and can be easily and quickly converted into cash at a reasonable price;

28 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (q) “money market” means the sector of the financial market that includes financial instruments that have a maturity or redemption date that is one year or less at the time of issuance; (r) “money market instrument” means high quality debt securities issued by government and corporate borrowers, whose maturity or redemption date is up to one year, that seek to preserve capital and provide daily liquidity, while offering returns in line with money market rates, and includes a banker’s acceptance, bond, commercial paper, debenture, deposit, negotiable certificate of deposit, state-owned enterprise bill, promissory note, trade bill and treasury bill; (s) “negotiable certificate of deposit” means a certificate of deposit issued by a bank, and payable to order or bearer; (t) “paid-up share capital” means the amount of money a company has received from shareholders in exchange for participation in the ownership of the company by selling its shares on the primary market or directly to investors; (u) “promissory note” means an unconditional promise in writing made by one person to another, signed by the maker, and engaging to pay on demand or at a fixed or determinable future time, a sum certain in money, to a specified person or his or her order, or to bearer; and (v) “treasury bill” means a bill drawn by the Government of Namibia on the Secretary to the Treasury, calling on the latter to pay a sum certain in money to a specified person or his order, or to bearer on demand or on a certain specified future date. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following – (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) client; (ii) collective investment scheme; (iii) entity; and (iv) NAMFISA; (b) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) investment manager; and (ii) investment management. Applicability 2. This Standard applies to all financial intermediaries involved in investment management. Capital Based Requirements Minimum Capital and Solvency 3. The investment manager must maintain, on an ongoing basis, paid-up share capital of at least N$250,000.00 (two hundred and fifty thousand Namibia dollar) for employment in the business.

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 29 4. Subject to clause 5, the investment manager must maintain professional indemnity insurance or fidelity insurance cover or both such insurances sufficient to cover the risk of losses due to fraud, dishonesty, negligence, errors, omissions or any other dishonest acts or breaches of professional duty of its employees, directors or representatives. 5. The nature and extent of the insurance contemplated in clause 4 must be adequate and appropriate to the level of complexity and size of the business operations undertaken by the investment manager. 6. If the investment manager forms part of a group of companies, the professional indemnity insurance or fidelity insurance cover may be obtained at group level, but – (a) each entity that is covered by the group policy must be clearly identified in the policy documentation; (b) the amount of cover must be sufficient to cover the amounts required for each individual entity’s situation; and (c) each entity that is covered must have a certified copy of the policy documentation available for scrutiny by NAMFISA. 7. The minimum professional indemnity insurance or fidelity insurance cover must be N$1,000,000.00 (one million Namibia dollar), or such other amount as may be determined, by way of written notice from time to time, by NAMFISA. Capital adequacy 8. The assets of the investment manager, excluding non-marketable securities, immovable property, goodwill and any other intangible assets, must at all times exceed its liabilities. 9. The investment manager must, at all times, maintain marketable securities that exceed its liabilities by a sufficient margin to cover the risks to the investment manager’s net worth, and must be structured to result in capital addressed to the full range of risks to which the investment manager is subject. Liquidity adequacy 10. The investment manager must, at all times, maintain liquid assets equal to 13/52 weeks of annual expenditure. 11. In determining the “annual expenditure” to meet the 13/52 weeks liquidity requirement as prescribed under clause 10, the following items may be excluded: (a) employee bonuses and commissions (except where guaranteed); (b) employees’, directors’, and members’ share in profits; (c) emoluments of directors or members; (d) other appropriation of profits to directors or members; (e) asset management fees that are calculated as a percentage of assets under management; (f) donations;

30 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (g) provision for bad debts; (h) any loss resulting from the sale of assets; and (i) any charge for depreciation. 12. The investment manager must have in place sound, effective and comprehensive strategies and processes to assess and maintain on an ongoing basis, the amounts, types and distribution of capital that it considers adequate to cover the nature and level of the risks to which it is or might be exposed, and maintain records such that capital levels can be readily determined at any time, and report to NAMFISA at least quarterly, or as may be determined by way of written notice from time to time by NAMFISA. Non-Capital Based Requirements (Conduct of business obligations when providing investment management services to clients) Standards of conduct 13. The investment manager must not be under liquidation or provisional liquidation. 14. The investment manager must observe high standards of integrity, prudence, professional care and fair dealing when conducting investment management activities, and must act in the best interest of clients with due skill, care, diligence and good faith. 15. The investment manager must have sound administrative and accounting procedures, internal control mechanisms, effective procedures for risk assessment, and effective control and safeguard arrangements for information processing systems. 16. Outsourcing of important operational functions, where permitted, may not be undertaken in such a manner as to impair materially the quality of its internal control and the ability of NAMFISA to monitor the investment manager’s compliance with all obligations. Conflict of interest 17. The investment manager must take all reasonable steps to identify actual or perceived conflicts of interest between itself, including its managers, employees and representatives, or any person directly or indirectly linked to it by control and its clients, or between one client and another, that arise in the course of providing any investment management services. 18. The investment manager must adopt and document appropriate policies to minimise those conflicts of interest by identifying the instances where it would refuse to act and, where this is not necessary, making arrangements to minimise the risk of any loss to the client. 19. The investment manager must not take advantage of information it obtained from providing services to a client for its own benefit or the benefit of its employees or the benefit of another client, and where such an eventuality is likely to occur, the investment manager must – (a) adopt and document procedures, including the erection of information barriers, barriers between information technology systems, physical barriers or, if necessary, separate office locations, to minimise the possibility of information from one client being used for the benefit of another client, its employees; (b) train employees in matters relating to conflicts of interest and the procedures developed to avoid them; and

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 31 (c) obtain undertakings from employees that they will not use information gained from clients to the benefit of the investment manager or for their personal benefit. 20. Where the investment manager has a material interest in a transaction to be entered into with or for a client, or a relationship which gives rise to a conflict of interest, the investment manager must not advise or exercise discretion in relation to that transaction unless it has – (a) disclosed the material interest or relationship that may give rise to a conflict, as the case may be, to the client; and (b) taken reasonable steps to ensure that neither the material interest nor relationship would adversely affect the interests of the client. 21. The investment manager must take reasonable steps to ensure that neither it nor any of its employees or agents offers or gives, or solicits or accepts, any inducement that is likely to conflict with any of the duties owed to clients. Protection, segregation and safekeeping of clients’ financial assets 22. The investment manager must take reasonable steps to ensure continuity and regularity in the performance of investment management services and activities. To that end, the investment manager must employ appropriate and proportionate systems, resources and procedures. 23. The investment manager must hold its clients’ financial assets in trust for and on behalf of the clients on behalf of whom the financial assets were received. 24. The investment manager must ensure that one or more client accounts are opened with the relevant institution for purposes of segregating clients’ financial assets. 25. The investment manager must segregate its clients’ bank accounts from any account holding financial assets belonging to the investment manager. 26. The investment manager must ensure that clients’ financial assets do not form part of the financial assets of the investment manager for any purpose and must not be available in any circumstance for payment of any debt of the investment manager. 27. The investment manager must deposit into the client’s bank account all funds received on behalf of, or from the client, upon receipt. 28. The investment manager must, on a daily basis, reconcile its records showing the amounts held on behalf of each client in the client bank account and the aggregate of clients’ financial assets held in the client account or being held by third parties on behalf of clients. 29. Where there is more than one client bank account, the investment manager must reconcile each client bank account separately as well as the aggregate position on all clients’ accounts. 30. The investment manager must keep records of: (a) all the amounts it has deposited into a client bank account held by the investment manager, specifying the client on whose behalf the amounts are held and the dates on which they were deposited into the account; (b) all withdrawals from a client bank account, the dates of the withdrawals, and the names of the client on whose behalf the withdrawals were made; and

32 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (c) any other particulars as may be determined, by way of written notice from time to time, by NAMFISA. Protection of client rights 31. The investment manager must not, in any written communication or agreement, exclude or restrict – (a) any duty or liability to a client which it has under any law; (b) any other duty to act with integrity, prudence, professional care, skill and diligence that is owed to a client in connection with the provision to that client, of investment management services; or (c) any liability owed to a client for failure to exercise the degree of integrity, prudence, professional care, skill and diligence that may reasonably be expected of it in the provision of investment management services. Client’s understanding of risk 32. The investment manager must not – (a) recommend a transaction to a client, or effect a transaction with or for a client, unless it has taken all reasonable steps to enable the client to understand the risks involved; (b) knowingly mislead a client on any advantages or disadvantages of a contemplated transaction; or (c) promise a return unless such return is contractually guaranteed. 33. When providing investment management services, the investment manager must obtain the necessary information regarding the client’s knowledge and experience in the investment field relevant to the specific type of product or service, the client’s financial situation and investment objectives, so as to enable the investment manager to recommend to the client, the investments and financial instruments that are suitable for them. 34. Appropriate information must be provided in a comprehensible form to a client or a potential client about – (a) the investment manager and its services; (b) financial instruments and proposed investment strategies, including appropriate guidance on, and warnings of the risks associated with investments in those instruments, or in respect of particular investment strategies; and (c) costs and associated charges, so that they are reasonably able to understand the nature and risks of the investment management service and of the specific type of financial instrument that is being offered and, consequently, to take investment decisions on an informed basis. 35. The investment manager must, when making recommendations to a client, take all reasonable steps to satisfy itself that the client has a full understanding of the – (a) nature of the investment;

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 33 (b) fees and charges associated with the investment; (c) risks of the investment; (d) factors that are likely to affect the performance of the investment; (e) terms and conditions of the investment; and (f) consequences of deviating from the terms and conditions of the investment. Fair and clear communication 36. Clients must receive from the investment manager, adequate reports on the service provided. These reports must include, where applicable, the costs associated with the transactions and services undertaken on behalf of the client. 37. All information, including marketing communication, addressed by the investment manager to clients or potential clients must be fair, clear and not misleading. Marketing communication must be clearly identifiable as such. Investment manager’s understanding of investment options 38. When assessing an investment, the investment manager must assess the availability, reliability and relevance of information available both on the market and on the underlying assets. The analysis of the structure of the investment must be conducted both in normal and in stress scenarios. 39. When assessing an investment, the unique properties of the specific pool of assets must not be assumed to be identical to the broader asset category. An investment manager must ensure that their analysis of the underlying assets is based on information that is relevant for that specific type of underlying assets. 40. The investment manager must understand how cash flows will be allocated to the different tranches of the investment, whatever the structure of the investment. 41. The investment manager must have the appropriate expertise, including legal expertise and processes in place to perform credit risk assessment appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of any investment strategy they implement and the type and proportion of debt instruments they invest in, and must refrain from investing in products or issuers when they do not have enough information to perform an appropriate credit risk assessment. 42. The investment manager must ensure when investing on behalf of a collective investment scheme that the investment is consistent with the disclosures, mandate and internal operations of the collective investment scheme, or with the way it has been marketed to investors. 43. The investment manager must make its own determination as to the credit quality of a counterparty, collateral or financial instrument before investing and throughout the holding period. Reliance on credit rating agencies and other third parties 44. External credit ratings may form one element, among others, of the internal assessment process but do not constitute the sole factor supporting the credit analysis. 45. Where external credit ratings are used, the investment manager must understand the methodologies, parameters and the basis on which the assessment of a credit rating agency was produced, and have adequate means and expertise to identify the limitations of the methodology and

34 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 assumptions used to form that assessment. The investment manager must also have adequate means and expertise to challenge the methodology and parameters. 46. The investment manager must review with the client, its disclosures describing alternative sources of credit information in addition to external credit ratings and make available to investors, as appropriate, a brief summary description of their internal credit assessment process, including how external credit ratings may be used to complement or as part of the manager’s own internal credit assessment methods. 47. Where external credit ratings are used, a downgrade should not automatically trigger the immediate sale of investment assets. Should the investment manager decide to divest, the transaction must be conducted within a timeframe that is in the best interests of the investors. 48. The investment manager must ensure that its internal assessment process is regularly updated and applied consistently. 49. The investment manager must ensure, when relying on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical for the provision of continuous and satisfactory investment management services to clients and the performance of investment management activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis, that it takes reasonable steps to avoid undue additional operational risk. Safekeeping and retention of records 50. The investment manager must safely preserve the transaction, accounting and other records for a minimum period of five years from the date on which they are made, or any such later period as may be required by any other applicable law. Client confidentiality 51. The investment manager must keep all information in its possession confidential, relating to a client, whether obtained from the client or third parties. 52. The investment manager must adopt and document policies and procedures designed to ensure that information obtained from clients and third parties is kept confidential and secure. 53. The policies and procedures adopted under clause 52 must include: (a) a requirement that employees undertake to maintain confidentiality in their contract of employment; (b) how to determine the employees who may have access to confidential information; (c) procedures that effectively restrict access to confidential information by employees through the use of secure document management, storage systems and encryption protected information within the investment manager’s Information Technology system; and (d) systems designed to safeguard the integrity of any electronic record or transaction recording system. 54. Notwithstanding clause 51, the investment manager may disclose information relating to a client to an authority permitted to request such information, on request, or if it is ordered to do so by a court of competent jurisdiction.

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8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 35 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS MANNER AND FORM OF APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION AS A CENTRAL SECURITIES DEPOSITORY, AN EXCHANGE, A SECURITIES CLEARING HOUSE, AN INVESTMENT MANAGER, A LINKED INVESTMENT SERVICE PROVIDER, A SECURITIES RATING AGENCY, A SECURITIES DEALER OR A SECURITIES ADVISOR PURSUANT TO SECTION 83(4) Standard No. FM.S.3.7 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(2)(c), read with sections 83(1), (2), (3) and (4), of the Fi￾nancial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “key person” means any person responsible for managing or overseeing, either alone or together with another responsible person, the activities of a financial institution or financial intermediary relating to the rendering of the financial services, and includes those individuals or other entities holding more than 20% of the financial institution or financial intermediary’s voting rights; and (c) “NAMFISA ERS” means the Electronic Regulatory System which facilitates communication between NAMFISA and financial institutions. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following – (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) banking institution; (ii) board; (iii) director; (iv) document; (v) NAMFISA; (vi) public company; (b) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) authorised advisor; (ii) central securities depository;

36 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (iii) clearing house; (iv) exchange; (v) investment manager; (vi) linked investment service provider; (vii) securities advisor; (viii) securities clearing house; (ix) securities dealer; and (x) securities rating agency. Applicability 2. This Standard applies to an entity referred to in sections 83(1) and (2) of the Act, applying for registration as a central securities depository, an exchange, a securities clearing house, an investment manager, a linked investment service provider, a securities rating agency, a securities dealer or a securities advisor (hereinafter referred to as “applicant”). 3. An application for registration as a central securities depository, an exchange, a securities clearing house, an investment manager, a linked investment service provider, a securities rating agency, a securities dealer or a securities advisor must be made to NAMFISA in accordance with clause 4. Particulars to be furnished upon application 4. Pursuant to section 83 of the Act, an application for registration as a central securities depository, an exchange, a securities clearing house, an investment manager, a linked investment service provider, a securities rating agency, a securities dealer or a securities advisor must – (a) be in writing, and provide the particulars as specified in the Schedule, Application form for registration granted pursuant to sections 83(1), (2), (3) and (4); (b) be signed by a person duly authorised to represent the applicant; (c) be accompanied by proof of registration as a Namibian Company with the Registrar of Companies (BIPA) (CM 1 form); (d) be accompanied by its Memorandum and Articles of Association (CM 2 and CM 44 forms); (e) be accompanied by a Certificate to commence business (CM 46); (f) be accompanied with the details of all directors (CM 29); (g) be accompanied by the relevant completed parts and other information required pursuant to Standard No. GEN.S.10.2 – Fit and Proper Requirements; (h) be accompanied by the applicant’s company organogram and confirmation of operational systems;

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 37 (i) be accompanied by details of its bank account with a banking institution; (j) be accompanied with details of its nominee company; (k) be accompanied by a board resolution authorising the applicant’s representative to apply for registration on behalf of the applicant; (l) be accompanied by a detailed business plan; (m) be accompanied by proof of sufficient paid-up capital and unimpaired reserves; (n) be accompanied by a Tax Certificate from the tax Authority; (o) be accompanied by proof of the newspaper notice under section 83(5); (p) if the applicant is a central securities depository, be accompanied by the proposed rules of the central securities depository; (q) if the applicant is an exchange, be accompanied by the proposed listing requirements and proposed rules of the exchange; (r) be accompanied by a certified copy of the appointment letter of the applicant’s auditor; and (s) be accompanied by proof of payment of the required application fee. 5. The applicant must disclose all information as required in the Schedule and all parts must be duly completed. 6. (1) An application not complete in all respects and not conforming to the instructions specified in the Schedule may be rejected on the basis of being non-compliant with this Standard. (2) In instances where the application is deemed incomplete, NAMFISA must give the applicant the opportunity to provide the required information to complete the application. The required information must be provided within the period of seven days, or such other period stipulated or agreed to by NAMFISA, failing which the application shall be rejected. 7. Nothing shall prevent NAMFISA from seeking further or additional information or documents as may be reasonably necessary for processing of the application for registration. 8. The applicant or its duly authorised representative may¹, if so required, be called to appear before NAMFISA for a personal representation in connection with the application. Submission 9. (1) An application for registration must be submitted to NAMFISA electronically on the NAMFISA ERS. (2) Where necessary and when so directed by NAMFISA, the applicant must submit specified documentation manually to NAMFISA.

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¹ Applicant to attach a copy of the letter or document of authorisation

38 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 SUPPORTING SCHEDULE The following supporting schedule is attached to and forms part of this Standard: Schedule: APPLICATION FORM FOR REGISTRATION AS A CENTRAL SECURITIES DEPOSITORY, AN EXCHANGE, A SECURITIES CLEARING HOUSE, AN INVESTMENT MANAGER, A LINKED INVESTMENT SERVICE PROVIDER, A SECURITIES RATING AGENCY, A SECURITIES DEALER OR A SECURITIES ADVISOR

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 39 SCHEDULE (to Standard No. FM.S.3.7) APPLICATION FORM FOR REGISTRATION AS A CENTRAL SECURITIES DEPOSITORY, AN EXCHANGE, A SECURITIES CLEARING HOUSE, AN INVESTMENT MANAGER, A LINKED INVESTMENT SERVICE PROVIDER, A SECURITIES RATING AGENCY, A SECURITIES DEALER OR A SECURITIES ADVISOR PURSUANT TO SECTION 83 OF THE ACT PART 1 COMPANY INFORMATION SECTION 1: GENERAL 1.1 Full registered name: _________________________________________________________ 1.2 Previously registered name(s), if any: ____________________________________________ 1.3 Trading name(s): ____________________________________________________________ 1.4 Company registration number: _________________________________________________ 1.5 Country of registration: _______________________________________________________ 1.6 Income Tax registration No. and VAT registration No., if applicable: ___________________

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1.7 Financial year-end of the company: ______________________________________________ 1.8 Registered address of the company: ______________________________________________ 1.9 Principal office address: _______________________________________________________

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1.10 Postal address: ______________________________________________________________

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1.11 Telephone number: __________________________________________________________ 1.12 Website, if any: _____________________________________________________________ 1.13 E-mail address: _____________________________________________________________ 1.14 Is the company subject to regulation in a foreign country or financial services intermediary in a foreign country? ___________________________________________________________ 1.15 If yes, which jurisdiction? _____________________________________________________ 1.16 Name of foreign regulator(s)? __________________________________________________

40 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 SECTION 2: FINANCIAL RESOURCES We hereby confirm that the applicant has, at minimum, paid-up share capital adequate for employment in the business and will maintain liquid resources that cover 13 weeks of annual expenditure at all times. Paid-up share capital Paid-up share capital N$ SECTION 3: AUDITOR 3.1 Full name of appointed auditor: _________________________________________________ 3.2 Company Registration No.: ____________________________________________________ 3.3 Auditor’s registration number with PAAB: ________________________________________ 3.4 Tax Reference No.: __________________________________________________________ 3.5 Contact person: _____________________________________________________________ 3.6 Postal address: ______________________________________________________________

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3.7 Physical address: ____________________________________________________________

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3.8 Telephone number.: __________________________________________________________ 3.9 E-mail address: _____________________________________________________________ 3.10 Website, if any: _____________________________________________________________ SECTION 4: DIRECTORS AND OTHER KEY PERSONS <Provide details of each director or key person, using a separate sheet as attachment where applicable> 4.1 Full names of director/key person: _______________________________________________

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4.2 Identification/Passport No.: ____________________________________________________ 4.3 Nationality: _______________________________________________________________ 4.4 Postal address: _____________________________________________________________

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4.5 Telephone number: _________________________________________________________ 4.6 Mobile number: ____________________________________________________________ 4.7 E-mail address: ____________________________________________________________

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 41 SECTION 5: SHAREHOLDERS OR OTHER OWNER THAT CONTROLS THE APPLICANT <Attach the full shareholder organigram. Provide details of each shareholder or other owner who controls the applicant, using a separate sheet as attachment where applicable; if it is a company, provide contact person’s details> 5.1 Full name/registered name of shareholder: _______________________________________

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5.2 Previous surname(s) / previously registered name(s): _______________________________

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5.3 Identification/Passport/Company registration number.: ______________________________ 5.4 Date of birth/ Date of incorporation: ____________________________________________ 5.5 Nationality/Country of incorporation: ___________________________________________ 5.6 Postal address: _____________________________________________________________

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5.7 Telephone number: _________________________________________________________ 5.8 Mobile number: ____________________________________________________________ 5.9 E-mail address of contact person: ______________________________________________

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5.10 Shareholding percentage: _________________________________________________ If more than one such shareholder or owner, please complete and attach share certificate and indicate % held by each: Name Individual Company Partnership Joint Venture Close Corporation Other % held by each SECTION 6: HOLDING COMPANY OF THE APPLICANT (IF APPLICABLE) 6.1 Full registered name: ________________________________________________________ 6.2 Previously registered name(s): ________________________________________________

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6.3 Company registration No.: ___________________________________________________ 6.4 Date of incorporation: _______________________________________________________ 6.5 Country of incorporation: ____________________________________________________ 6.6 Postal address: _____________________________________________________________

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42 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 6.7 Registered address: _________________________________________________________

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6.8 Telephone No.: ____________________________________________________________ 6.9 Email address of shareholder or contact person: ___________________________________

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6.10 Shareholders : _____________________________________________________________ If more than one holding company, please complete and attach share certificate and indicate % held by each: Name Individual Company Partnership Joint Venture Close Corpo￾ration Other % held by each SECTION 7: CHIEF EXECUTIVE OFFICER 7.1 Full names: _______________________________________________________________ 7.2 Identification/Passport number: _______________________________________________ 7.3 Nationality: _______________________________________________________________ 7.4 Postal address: _____________________________________________________________

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7.5 Telephone number: _________________________________________________________ 7.6 Mobile number: ____________________________________________________________ 7.7 E-mail address: ____________________________________________________________ SECTION 8: APPOINTED PRINCIPAL OFFICER 8.1 Full names: _______________________________________________________________ 8.2 Identification/Passport No.: ___________________________________________________ 8.3 Nationality: _______________________________________________________________ 8.4 Physical address: ___________________________________________________________

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8.5 Postal address: _____________________________________________________________

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8.6 Telephone number: _________________________________________________________ 8.7 Mobile number: ____________________________________________________________

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 43 8.8 E-mail address: __________________________________________________________ SECTION 9: BANK DETAILS (operational account) <Proof of bank account to be attached> 9.1 Name of bank: __________________________________________________________ 9.2 Branch name: ___________________________________________________________ 9.3 Account No.: ___________________________________________________________ 9.4 Branch code: ___________________________________________________________ PART 2 OPERATIONAL ABILITY OF APPLICANT SECTION 1: BUSINESS PLAN The business plan of the applicant, that has been approved by the board of directors must at least deal with the following matters: (a) Provide an overview of the entity’s business operations (company profile, clientele and post- trade offering, investment platform, future growth, etc.), Corporate Governance Framework, Risk Management Framework, Internal Control Framework, Business Continuity Plan, Systems for Portfolio Management, Agreements with Service Providers (internal and external), Information Technology Systems, Marketing Plan, Human Resources Plan, etc.; (b) An explanation of the management and operational structure of the applicant including the names of the individuals responsible for the major functional areas and the number of personnel employed or to be employed in each functional area in the applicant; (c) The planned development of the information technology systems and infrastructure of the applicant and arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance, upgrading and security including details pertaining to the method or facility by means of which the business will be carried on; (d) The planned approach to qualifying, quantifying and managing risk within the applicant; (e) Security procedures to ensure the integrity of the systems for recording transactions and the maintenance of records, the capacity of these systems in relation to the budgeted number of transactions and the back-up resources available in the event of a systems failure; and (f) A report by the chairperson of the board of directors confirming that the applicant has adequate systems, procedures and policies in place to protect the information, data, records and documents relating to client accounts and the affairs clients against any unauthorized access, alteration, destruction or dissemination.

44 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 PART 3 ADDITIONAL ATTACHMENTS YES NO Proof of registration as a Namibian Company with the Registrar of Companies (BIPA) (CM 1) Certified copies of the applicant’s Memorandum and Articles of Association and articles (CM 2 and CM 44); Certificate to commence business (CM 46) Details of all directors (CM 29) Completed parts and other information required pursuant to Standard No. GEN.S.10.2 – Fit and Proper Requirements Company’s organogram and confirmation of operational systems Details of bank account with a banking institution Details of nominee company Board resolution authorising the applicant’s representative to apply for registration on behalf of the applicant Detailed business plan approved by the board of directors Proof of sufficient paid-up capital and unimpaired reserves Tax certificate from the tax Authority In the case of an application for registration as a central securities depository, or an exchange, the proposed rules of the central securities depository or exchange In the case of an application for registration as an exchange, the proposed listing requirements of the exchange Proof of the newspaper notice pursuant to section 83(5) A certified copy of the appointment letter of the applicant’s auditor Proof of payment of the required application fee. SIGNATURE OF PRINCIPAL OFFICER OR DULY AUTHORISED PERSON By signing the document, I confirm that all the information contained in this application is true and correct and can be relied upon and I have disclosed all necessary material information that may be required by NAMFISA. Full Name: ______________________________________________________________________ Capacity: _______________________________________________________________________ Signature: _______________________________________________________________________ Date: ___________________________________________________________________________

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8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 45 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS THE LIMITS FOR THE PURPOSES OF PARAGRAPH (b) OF THE DEFINITION OF “AFFECTED TRANSACTION” AS DEFINED IN SECTION 155 OF THE ACT AND DISCLOSURE OF AFFECTED TRANSACTIONS Standard No. FM.S.3.8 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(4)(s) of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “Companies Act” means the Companies Act, 2004 (Act No. 28 of 2004); (c) “material” means any factual information about an issuer or securities issued which is likely or reasonably expected to influence and investor’s decision; and (d) “transaction” has the meaning ascribed thereto by section 78 of the Act, but for the purposes of this Standard also includes any other transfer, e.g., by way of a gift, testamentary disposition, cession, or pledge, of listed securities outside the registered exchange on which such securities are listed. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following – (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) affiliate; (ii) associate; (iii) board; (iv) director; (vi) NAMFISA; and (xi) officer; (b) “control” as defined in section 3 of the Act; (c) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) issuer; (ii) listed security;

46 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (iii) regulated person; and (iv) security. Applicability 2. This Standard applies to listed securities and securities intended to be listed on a regulated market that – (a) have voting rights attached, which vest the right to vote; or (b) are convertible to a security with attributes referred to in paragraph (a). Limits for the purpose of paragraph (b) of the definition of “affected transaction”: 3. Any transaction in which a person, in whom control of a corporate body is vested, acquires further securities of that corporate body, whether acting alone or conjointly or in concert within the meaning of clause 4, in excess of: (a) 5% of any class of voting securities; or (b) 5% of any class of non-voting securities that are convertible into voting securities, is an affected transaction for the purposes of section 155(b) of the definition of “affected transaction”. Acting conjointly or in concert 4. (1) For the purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of the definition of “affected transaction” under section 155 of the Act, two or more persons who, with respect to a corporate body, have entered into any transaction, whether formal or informal, verbal or written, in respect of: (a) securities of that corporate body; (b) securities of an affiliate; or (c) associate of that corporate body, are deemed to be acting conjointly or in concert. (2) Without limiting the generality of sub-clause (1), any agreement, commitment or understanding by or between two or more persons who beneficially own securities of a corporate body or securities of any entity referred to in sub-clause (1)(b) or (c): (a) whereby any of them or their nominees may veto any proposal put before the board of directors of that corporate body; or (b) under which no proposal put before the board of directors of that corporate body may be approved except with the consent of any of them or their nominees, is deemed to be a transaction referred to in sub-clause (1). (3) For the purposes of this clause, persons shall be presumed not to have agreed to act conjointly or in concert solely by reason of the fact that – (a) a person exercises voting rights by proxy or in a nominee or fiduciary capacity for and on behalf of one or more other persons in respect of securities referred to in sub￾clause (1); or

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 47 (b) they exercise the voting rights attached to securities referred to in sub-clause (1) in the same manner. (4) Where, in the opinion of NAMFISA, it is reasonable to conclude that a transaction referred to in sub-clause (1) or (2) exists by or among two or more persons, NAMFISA may designate those persons as persons who have agreed to act conjointly or in concert. Affected transactions prohibited without disclosure 5. (1) A person must not enter into any affected transaction without first giving notice of the transaction, in writing, to NAMFISA and the regulated market concerned and must, after entering into the affected transaction, forthwith give notice to the public by means of a press release in at least two daily newspapers circulating in Namibia. (2) The notice and the press release referred to in sub-clause (1) must be authorised by a senior officer of the corporate body concerned, contain the information set out in the Schedule to this Standard, and be accessible to the public. Further disclosure 6. In the event that disclosure has been made by a person pursuant to clause 5 in respect of an affected transaction, and the person intends to enter into an additional affected transaction, that person must not enter into the additional transaction unless and until additional disclosure is made to NAMFISA and the regulated market in accordance with clause 5. Exceptions 7. This Standard does not apply to a transaction that is – (a) a merger or amalgamation of two or more corporate bodies; (b) a transfer of all or substantially all of the business or assets of a corporate body; (c) a scheme which has been voted for or will be voted for at a meeting of the security holders concerned of a corporate body; (d) the result of a corporate body being placed under judicial management; or (e) undertaken by a corporate body owned by the State. SUPPORTING SCHEDULE The following supporting schedule is attached to and forms part of this Standard: Schedule: INFORMATION TO BE PROVIDED TO NAMFISA AND THE REGULATED MARKET CONCERNED, AND TO BE CONTAINED IN A PRESS RELEASE, PURSUANT TO CLAUSES 5 AND 6 OF THIS STANDARD

48 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 SCHEDULE (to Standard FM.S.3.8) INFORMATION TO BE PROVIDED TO NAMFISA AND THE REGULATED MARKET CONCERNED, AND TO BE CONTAINED IN A PRESS RELEASE, PURSUANT TO CLAUSES 5 AND 6 OF THIS STANDARD

1. For each class of securities involved in a transaction giving rise to an obligation to give notice to NAMFISA and the regulated market concerned and to the public by way of a press release pursuant to clause 5 or 6 of the Standard, and if applicable, for each class of voting securities into which the securities of the class are convertible, exercisable or exchangeable, the notice must include: (a) the name and address of the person who is or will be the acquirer; (b) the designation and number of securities and the percentage in the class of securities which the person acquired or will acquire; (c) the designation and number of securities and the total percentage in the class of securities which the person holds or will hold immediately after the transaction; (d) the designation and number of securities and the total percentage in the class of securities over which: (i) the person who is the acquirer, either alone, or together with anyassociates or other persons acting conjointly or in concert, has control; (ii) the person who is the acquirer, either alone or together with any associates or other persons acting conjointly or in concert, has control but does not have ownership; (e) the value, in Namibian dollars, of any consideration offered per security, if the person acquired ownership of a security; (f) the purpose of the person who is or will be the acquirer and any associates or other persons acting jointly or in concert in effecting the transaction; (g) the general nature and material terms of any agreement with respect to the securities of the corporate body, other than lending arrangements, entered into among the corporate body or any other entity and the person who is the acquirer and any associates or other persons acting conjointly or in concert with the acquirer, including any agreements with respect to the acquisition, holding, disposition or voting of any of the securities; (h) the names and addresses of any associates or other persons acting conjointly or in concert with the person who is the acquirer with respect to the transaction; and (i) any previously undisclosed inside information known by a person who is an insider.
2. The notice in the press may include: (a) other relevant information in addition to that required by this Schedule; or (b) a declaration that the issue of the press release is not an admission that a person named in the press release owns or controls any described securities or is an associate or acting conjointly or in concert with another named person.

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8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 49 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS FORM OF CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION FOR A CENTRAL SECURITIES DEPOSITORY, AN EXCHANGE, AN INVESTMENT MANAGER, A LINKED INVESTMENT SERVICE PROVIDER, A SECURITIES CLEARING HOUSE, A SECURITIES RATING AGENCY, A ASECURITIES ADVISOR OR A SECURITIES DEALER Standard No. FM.S.3.9 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(2)(b), read with section 85(3), of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard, “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following as defined in section as defined in section 78(1) of the Act – (a) central securities depository; (b) exchange; (c) investment manager; (d) linked investment service provider; (e) securities advisor; (f) securities clearing house; (g) securities dealer; and (h) securities rating agency. Applicability
2. This Standard applies to a registered central securities depository, exchange, investment manager, linked investment service provider, securities clearing house, securities rating agency, securities advisor or securities dealer (hereinafter referred to as “applicants”) applying for registration granted pursuant to section 85 of the Act. Form of certificate of registration
3. The certificate of registration to be issued to a central securities depository, an exchange, an investment manager, a linked investment service provider, securities clearing house, a securities rating agency, a securities advisor or a securities dealer, must take the form of the Annexure attached to this Standard.

50 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 ANNEXURE (to Standard No. FM.S.3.9) Registration No .…………………… CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 (ACT NO. 2 OF 2021) REGISTRATION AS (insert the type) This is to certify that ____________________________________________________________ (insert the name) with principal office at: _________________________________ (insert address of principal office), has been duly registered in terms of section 85 of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021, and is authorised to (insert function), and may operate from Namibia.

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CHIEF EXECUTIVE OFFICER DATE OF REGISTRATION

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8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 51 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS APPLICATION BY REGISTERED CENTRAL SECURITIES DEPOSITORY, EXCHANGE, INVESTMENT MANAGER, LINKED INVESTMENT SERVICE PROVIDER, SECURITIES CLEARING HOUSE, SECURITIES RATING AGENCY, SECURITIES ADVISOR OR SECURITIES DEALER FOR CANCELLATION OF REGISTRATION GRANTED PURSUANT TO SECTION 85 OF THE ACT OR FOR VARIATION OF THE CONDITIONS FOR REGISTRATION Standard No. FM.S.3.12 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(2)(c), read with section 88(1) and (2), of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard - (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “special resolution” means a resolution passed by a company as contemplated in sections 207 through to section 211 of the Companies Act; and (c) “NAMFISA ERS” means the Electronic Regulatory System that facilitates communication between NAMFISA and financial institutions or financial intermediaries. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following: (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) auditor; (ii) board; (iii) principal officer; (iv) regulated person; and (v) NAMFISA; (b) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) central securities depository; (ii) exchange; (iii) investment manager;

52 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (iv) linked investment service provider; (v) securities advisor; (vi) securities clearing house; (vii) securities dealer; and (viii) securities rating agency. Applicability 2. This Standard applies to a registered central securities depository, exchange, investment manager, linked investment service provider, securities clearing house, securities rating agency, securities advisor or securities dealer (hereinafter referred to as “applicants”) applying for cancellation of its registration granted pursuant to section 85 of the Act. 3. An application for variation to the conditions subject to which registration was granted must also be dealt with in accordance with this Standard. Application for cancellation of registration or variation of conditions 4. An application for cancellation of registration granted pursuant to section 85 of the Act or for variation of conditions of registration for which it was registered must be made to NAMFISA in accordance with clause 5. Particulars to be furnished upon application 5. Pursuant to section 88(2) of the Act, an application for cancellation of registration granted pursuant to section 85 or variation of registration conditions must - (a) be in writing and provide the particulars as specified in the Schedule, Application form for cancellation of registration granted pursuant to section 85 of the Act; (b) be accompanied by a copy of the notice published in terms of section 88(3) of the Act; (c) be accompanied by the original certificate of registration (declaration under oath where original lost); (d) be accompanied by a bank letter confirming the closure of the bank account(s) opened and operated for purposes of segregating client assets; (e) be signed by the principal officer or a person duly authorised to represent the applicant; (f) other than a securities advisor that is an individual, be accompanied by a copy of a special resolution on the decision to apply for cancelation of its registration granted or vary its registration of business for which it was registered pursuant to section 85 of the Act; (g) for securities advisor that is an individual, be accompanied by a written representation on why cancellation or variation of business, as the case may be, is necessary;

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 53 (h) specify the measures that the applicant has taken to discharge all its obligations and meet all its liabilities under any contractual obligation; and (i) provide proof of payment of the required application fee (if any). 6. The applicant must disclose all information as required in the Schedule and all parts must be duly completed. 7. (1) An application not complete in all respects and not conforming to the instructions specified in the Schedule may be rejected on the basis of being non-compliant with this Standard. (2) In instances where the application is deemed not complete, NAMFISA must give the applicant the opportunity to provide the required information to complete the application. The required information must be provided within the period of seven days, or such other period stipulated or agreed to by NAMFISA, failing which the application shall be rejected. 8. Nothing shall prevent NAMFISA from seeking further or additional information or documents as may be reasonably necessary for processing of the application. 9. The applicant, its principal officer or a duly authorised person may, if so required, be called to appear before NAMFISA for a personal representation in connection with the application. Submission 10. (1) An application for cancellation of registration or variation of the conditions must be submitted to NAMFISA electronically on the NAMFISA ERS. (2) Where necessary and when so directed by NAMFISA, the applicant must submit specified documentation manually to NAMFISA. Effect of cancellation of registration 11. On and from the date of cancellation of the registration of a central securities depository, exchange, investment manager, linked investment service provider, securities clearing house, securities rating agency, securities advisor or securities dealer shall cease to act as such. SUPPORTING SCHEDULE The following supporting schedule is attached to and form part of this Standard: Schedule: APPLICATION BY REGISTERED CENTRAL SECURITIES DEPOSITORY, EXCHANGE, INVESTMENT MANAGER, LINKED INVESTMENT SERVICE PROVIDER, SECURITIES CLEARING HOUSE, SECURITIES RATING AGENCY, SECURITIES ADVISOR OR SECURITIES DEALER FOR CANCELLATION OF REGISTRATION GRANTED PURSUANT TO SECTION 85 OF THE ACT OR FOR VARIATION OF THE CONDITIONS FOR REGISTRATION

54 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 SCHEDULE (to Standard FM.S.3.12) APPLICATION BY REGISTERED CENTRAL SECURITIES DEPOSITORY, EXCHANGE, INVESTMENT MANAGER, LINKED INVESTMENT SERVICE PROVIDER, SECURITIES CLEARING HOUSE, SECURITIES RATING AGENCY, SECURITIES ADVISOR OR SECURITIES DEALER FOR CANCELLATION OF REGISTRATION GRANTED PURSUANT TO SECTION 85 OF THE ACT OR FOR VARIATION OF THE CONDITIONS FOR REGISTRATION Indicate whether it is an application for – Cancellation of registration OR Variation of conditions Please complete in full: REGULATED PERSON Full Name(s) ......................................................................................................................................... Company Registration Number/ Identity Number .............................................................................. NAMFISA Registration Number .......................................................................................................... Income Tax Number ............................................................................................................................. CONTACT DETAILS Physical address: ................................................................................................................................... Postal address: ....................................................................................................................................... Telephone (w): ...................................................................................................................................... Cell number: ........................................................................................................................................ E-mail address: ...................................................................................................................................... DETAILS OF PRINCIPAL OFFICER First Names: .......................................................................................................................................... Surname: ............................................................................................................................................... ID/Passport number: ............................................................................................................................. Nationality: ........................................................................................................................................... Physical address: ................................................................................................................................... Postal Address: ...................................................................................................................................... Telephone number ................................................................................................................................ Mobile: ..................................................................................................................................................

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 55 E-mail address: ............................................................................................................................ DETAIL OF SHAREHOLDER(S) Name Shareholding DETAILS OF BOARD OF DIRECTORS Name Nationality Executive/Non-Executive Name of the Board Chairperson: ….............................................................................................. Name Name of Chairperson(s) of committee(s) DETAILS OF AUDITOR Name: ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Name of professional regulatory body: ………………………………………………………………… Membership No.: ……………………………………………………………………………..……… DETAILS OF TRUSTEE OR CUSTODIAN IF APPLICABLE ……………………………………………………………………….…………………...……..…… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..… …..………………………………………………………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE By signing the document, I confirm that all the information contained in this application is true and correct and can be relied upon and I have disclosed all necessary material information that may be required by NAMFISA. Full Names(s): ....................................................................................................................................... Signature: .............................................................................................................................................. Capacity: ............................................................................................................................................... Date: ....................................................................................................................................................

56 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS GOVERNANCE Standard No. FM.S.3.10 issued by NAMFISA under sections 410(2)(n) and 410(4)(t) of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “conflict of interest” means a situation which a director, key person, auditor or 3rd party service provider encounters, while rendering a financial service to a client, if that situation – (i) impairs the objectivity of the director, key person, auditor or 3rd party service provider in any aspect of rendering the financial service to the client; or (ii) prevents a director, key person, auditor or 3rd party service provider from rendering the financial service to the client in an unbiased and fair manner or from acting in the best interest of the client; (c) “executive director” means an individual involved in the day-to-day operations of the regulated entity or its subsidiaries; (d) “executive management” means the team of individuals at the highest level of a regulated entity who are involved in the day-to-day responsibilities of managing the regulated entity and who hold specific executive powers conferred onto them, with and by authority of the board of the regulated entity; (e) “immediate family” means (i) a child, including a stepchild, child adopted in terms of any law, custom or tradition; (ii) the spouse; (iii) a parent, stepparent, grandparent, brother or sister; or (iv) a father-in-law, mother-in-law, sister-in law or brother-in-law, of the regulated entity’s employee, director or key person; (f) “key person” means any person responsible for managing or overseeing, either alone or together with another responsible person, the activities of a regulated entity, and includes those individuals or other entities holding more than 20% of a regulated entity’s voting rights;

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 57 (g) “non-executive director” means an individual not involved in the day-to-day management and operations of a regulated entity or its subsidiaries; and (h) “regulated entity” means any of the following entities registered under Chapter 3 of the Act: (i) authorised user; (ii) central securities depository; (iii) exchange; (iv) investment manager; (v) linked investment service provider; (vi) nominee company; (vii) participant; (viii) securities advisor; (ix) securities clearing house; (x) securities dealer; (xi) securities ratings agency; (xii) self-regulatory organisation; or (xiii) stockbroker. (2) A party is related to a regulated entity if the party is – (a) an affiliate of, or an associate of, a regulated entity; (b) in a joint venture with the regulated entity; (c) a member of the executive management; (d) designated key persons of the regulated entity; or (e) considered to be controlled by the regulated entity, pursuant to section 3 of the Act. (3) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following: (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) auditor; (ii) board; (iii) director;

58 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (iv) NAMFISA; and (v) principal officer; and (b) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) authorised user; (ii) central securities depository; (iii) exchange; (iv) investment manager; (v) linked investment service provider; (vi) nominee; (vii) participant; (viii) securities advisor; (ix) securities clearing house; (x) securities dealer; (xi) securities rating agency; (xii) self-regulatory organisation; and (xiii) stockbroker. Applicability 2. This Standard applies to all regulated entities. 3. This Standard must be read with the provisions in the following Standards: (a) Standard No. GEN.S.10.2 – Fit and Proper Requirements; (b) Standard No. GEN.S.10.8 – Independence of directors, members of a board, trustees, custodians, auditors and of any other person required to be independent under the Act; (c) Standard No. GEN.S.10.9 – Code of Conduct; and (d) Standard No. GEN.S.10.20 – Definition of related party transactions and identifying those that are prohibited under the Act. PART 1: GOVERNANCE BY THE BOARD Board’s ethical leadership responsibility 4. The board of a regulated entity must –

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 59 (a) provide effective leadership based on an ethical foundation characterised by the ethical values of responsibility, accountability, fairness and transparency; (b) ensure that the responsibilities of the board are consistent with the overriding objectives of the regulated entity; (c) retain ultimate responsibility for the performance, conduct and governance of the regulated entity, even though certain functions are delegated or outsourced to external service providers, and the board may not abdicate any of its functions and responsibilities; (d) be responsible for developing the regulated entity’s ethical standards, and such standards must inform all practices, procedures, policies and conduct of the regulated entity; (e) consider the effect of its decisions on all key stakeholders of the regulated entity; and (f) ensure that the regulated entity’s ethics performance is assessed, monitored, reported and disclosed in the regulated entity’s annual financial statements. Board composition 5. (1) The board of a regulated entity must consist of executive directors, non￾executive directors and independent directors. (2) The board must appoint a chairperson among its directors. (3) The board must have a balanced power structure, with one-third of its members being independent directors. (4) The board must be assisted by a competent, suitably qualified and experienced company secretary. 6. The board of a regulated entity must have necessary qualifications, knowledge, skills and expertise to effectively lead, direct and oversee the regulated entity’s business to ensure it is conducted in a sound and prudent manner, and for this purpose – (a) the board must collectively and individually have, and continue to maintain, including through training, necessary skills, knowledge and understanding of the regulated entity’s business to be able to fulfil their roles; (b) the board must have knowledge and skills required for effectively governing a regulated entity, finance, accounting, the role of control functions, investment analysis and portfolio management, and obligations relating to fair treatment of customers; and (c) while certain areas of expertise may lie in some but not all members, the collective board must have an adequate spread and level of relevant competencies and understanding as appropriate to the regulated entity’s business. 7. The procedures for the appointment of directors must be formal and transparent, and must be considered by the board as a whole and subject to shareholder approval where applicable. 8. The appointment of each director must be formalised through a written agreement between the regulated entity and the director, setting out the key terms of the appointment.

60 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 Duties of board chairperson 9. The chairperson of the board must – (a) proactively and impartially lead the board, ensuring that the principle of collective responsibility for board decisions is upheld, while at the same time being aware of the individual duties of board members; (b) be independent within the meaning of this Standard; (c) proactively raise issues of concerns on behalf of the board; (d) ensure that the performance of the board as a whole, board committees and the principal officer is reviewed and evaluated on a regular basis, and must manage the performance of members of the board; and (e) preside over board meetings and ensure that time in meetings is used productively. Independence and conflict of interest 10. A member of the board, principal officer, employee, officers, auditor and other 3rd party service providers must report to the board any conflict of interest encountered before the commencement of their duties and/or during the performance of their duties. 11. There must be a clear identification and separation of operational and oversight responsibilities in the governance of the regulated entity, and the segregation of duties must reflect the nature and extent of the governance risks faced by the regulated entity. 12. The board must – (a) demonstrate their independence in the way they exercise any discretion; (b) always consider what is in the best interest of the regulated entity; (c) ensure that appropriate controls exist to – (i) promote the independence and impartiality of the board; (ii) ensure that confidential or privileged information in the possession or under the control of the regulated entity is protected and must only disclose such information as permitted in terms of the law or with the express consent of the relevant person; and (iii) prevent the improper use of privileged or confidential information; and (d) ensure that 3rd party service providers do not unduly influence the management of the regulated entity. 13. In addition to the meaning assigned to the term “independent” in Standard No. GEN.S.10.8 - The independence of directors, members of a board, trustees, custodians, auditors and of any other person required to be independent under the Act, for purposes of this Standard “independent director” means a director who – (a) is not an employee nor been employed by the regulated entity or related party in any board capacity or executive management within the preceding three years;

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 61 (b) is not associated to an adviser or consultant to the regulated entity; (c) is not a material customer or supplier of the regulated entity or has a personal service contract(s) with the regulated entity or a member of the regulated entity’s executive management; (d) has no material association or interest with the regulated entity or its related parties that could impair independent judgment; (e) is not a recipient of material financial contributions or benefits from the regulated entity that could compromise independence; (f) has not had any business relationship with the regulated entity (other than service as a director) for which the regulated entity has been required to make disclosure within the preceding three years; (g) is not employed by a public listed company or an unlisted company at which an executive officer of the regulated entity serves as a director; (h) is not a close family member of any person described in paragraphs (a) to (g); or (i) has not had any of the relationships described in paragraphs (a) to (g) with any affiliate of the regulated entity. 14. An independent director must not be an employee of a regulated entity or an employee of a related party. Orientation and training of directors 15. New directors must, at the expense of the regulated entity, receive training on both the legislative, regulatory and governance principles to equip them to effectively carry out their functions as directors. 16. The board must seek to enhance its knowledge, where relevant, via appropriate training and training programmes that meet the specific needs of the regulated entity and the individual directors, as may be identified during the annual individual directors’ performance evaluation. 17. Directors must receive regular briefings on matters relevant to the business of the regulated entity, changes in risks and laws applicable to the business of the regulated entity, including accounting standards and policies, and the environment in which it operates. Performance evaluation of board 18. The board must, at least annually, review its own performance to ascertain whether board members collectively and individually remain effective in discharging the respective roles and responsibilities assigned to them and identify opportunities to improve the performance of the board. 19. The board must implement appropriate measures to address any identified inadequacies, including any training programmes for continuous development of board members. 20. Subject to the Act, the board must ensure that – (a) the evaluation of the board, its committees and individual directors is performed annually against the board’s determined roles, functions, duties and performance criteria, as well as those for members of board committees;

62 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (b) the past performance as a board member must be taken into account when directors are nominated for re-appointment or re-election; (c) evaluations must be conducted by the chairperson who must ensure that directors know that they will be subject to evaluation, that they understand the criteria used for evaluation and that they understand the evaluation procedures that will be followed; (d) the board, except the principal officer, must evaluate the chairperson’s performance; and (e) the performance of the principal officer is evaluated at least annually. 21. The board may consider the use of external expertise from time to time to undertake its performance assessment where appropriate to enhance the objectivity and integrity of that assessment process. Internal audit 22. The board must consider whether the structure and operations of the regulated entity warrant the establishment of an internal audit function, which may be provided at the level of the entity or at group level. 23. (1) Where the board decides to introduce an internal audit function, the board must ensure that – (a) there is an effective risk based internal audit function; (b) in the event that the internal audit function is outsourced, the board is ultimately responsible to oversee, manage, inform and take accountability for the effective functioning of the outsourced internal audit function; (c) the board is ultimately responsible for the appointment and performance assessment of the head of internal audit; (d) internal audit must pursue a risk based approach to planning as opposed to a compliance-based approach that is limited to evaluation of adherence to procedures; and (e) internal controls must be established not only over financial matters, but also operational, compliance and sustainability matters to prevent, eliminate or manage risks faced by the regulated entity. (2) Where the internal audit function is provided at group level, the board of the entity must satisfy itself that the function has direct and unrestricted access to the entity’s Audit Committee, and that its coverage, scope, and reporting arrangements are appropriate to the entity’s risks and regulatory obligations. Board committees 24. Pursuant to section 398 of the Act, the regulated entity’s board may set up committees necessary to ensure effective oversight of key areas of risk, compliance and strategic importance, including but not limited to – (a) investment; (b) risk management;

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 63 (c) ethics; (d) nomination and remuneration; (e) information technology. (f) code of conduct; and (g) succession planning. 25. The terms of reference of a committee of the board must, at a minimum, cover – (a) the composition of the committee; (b) the objectives, purpose and functions of the committee; (c) delegated authorities, including the extent of power to make decisions or recommendations or both; (d) tenure; and (e) reporting mechanism to the board. 26. Every member of a board committee must, as far as is reasonably possible, be suitably skilled and experienced to serve on such committee. Board Policies 27. Pursuant to clause 22 , regulated entities must establish and maintain a comprehensive suite of governance policies that reflects its key operational, ethical, regulatory and strategic responsibilities, including but not limited to – (a) investment management; (b) risk management; (c) conflict of interest; (d) complaints management; (e) information technology. Tenure of office 28. (1) To ensure independence and reduce the risk of familiarity, no non-executive director may serve for more than three consecutive terms, and the tenure for one term may not exceed a period of three years. (2) After serving three consecutive terms, a minimum three- year cooling-off period must elapse during which the individual holds no employment, directorship, advisory role, or other significant relationship with the regulated entity, before being eligible for re-appointment as a non￾executive director.

64 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 Appointment of external auditor 29. (1) To ensure independence and reduce the risk of familiarity in respect of the auditor of the regulated entity, the auditor must be appointed for a fixed period and – (a) the auditor may not serve for more than five consecutive years unless otherwise approved by the Regulator; and (b) the auditor must comply with the partner rotation requirements prescribed by the Code of Ethics issued by the International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants. (2) After serving as the auditor for the maximum period of five consecutive years, a minimum period of at least three years must lapse before the same auditor may be appointed again. Rotation and succession 30. The board must set periodic, staggered rotation or tenure limits for directors and committee chairs, to balance fresh perspectives with continuity, retain valuable expertise, and prevent undue concentration of power. Filling of vacancies on the board 31. The board must fill vacancies, inclusive of interim vacancies, required by the rules of the regulated entity within a reasonable time from when the vacancy arose. PART 2: GOVERNANCE OF THE OPERATIONS OF THE REGULATED ENTITY Role of the board in setting the regulated entity strategy 32. The board must be responsible for the determination and approval of the long￾term and short-term strategies of the regulated entity and monitor implementation therewith by management or the service provider to whom services have been outsourced, if any. 33. Before approving the strategy, the board must ensure that the strategy is aligned with the Act and any relevant legislation, the purpose or object of the regulated entity, the value drivers of the regulated entity’s business and the legitimate interests and expectations of the regulated entity’s stakeholders. 34. The board must identify key performance and risk areas as well as the associated performance and risk indicators and measures, across key functions and areas of the regulated entity. Internal controls 35. The board must ensure that there are adequate internal controls in place to ensure that all persons and entities with operational and oversight responsibilities act in accordance with the objectives required by the rules of the regulated entity, the Act and any other applicable law. 36. Internal controls must cover all basic organisational and administrative procedures and, depending upon the scale and complexity of the regulated entity, the internal controls must include performance assessment, compensation mechanisms, information systems and processes, risk and compliance management procedures. 37. Appropriate policies guiding the governance and operations must be adopted and implemented by the board. 38. The oversight responsibilities of the board requires that there must be –

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 65 (a) a regular assessment of the performance of the persons and entities involved in the operations of the regulated entity in terms of service level agreements, mandates, and performance contracts; (b) a regular review of services and fees and all costs associated with the operations of the regulated entity to ensure that they are appropriate; (c) a regular review of the information processes, operational software systems and accounting and financial reporting systems involved in the operation of the regulated entity; (d) the monitoring and resolution of actual, potential or perceived conflict of interest amongst those involved in the operation of the regulated entity; (e) the protection of confidential information of the regulated entity; and (f) regular review of compliance with regulatory and statutory requirements of the regulated entity. Expert advice 39. Where the board lacks sufficient expertise to make fully informed decisions and to fulfil its responsibilities, it may seek expert advice. 40. The board must satisfy itself that any expert advice obtained is independently given and where the professional gives expert advice in respect of a service provider, the board must satisfy itself that such advice is not compromised by the relationship of that professional or their firm to that service provider. 41. The board must assess and satisfy itself that any expert advice received is of quality, it must verify that all its professional staff and external service providers have adequate qualifications and experience, and the board is not obliged to accept the advice but must consider the appropriate￾ness of such advice. Risk management 42. Subject to the Act – (a) the board may delegate oversight of the regulated entity’s risk management function to an appropriate board committee; and (b) the board must ensure that the frameworks and processes in place to assist in anticipating these risks have the following characteristics: (i) insight - the ability to identify the cause of the risk, where there are multiple causes or root causes that are not immediately obvious; (ii) information - comprehensive information about all aspects of risks and risk sources, especially of financial risks; (iii) incentives - the ability to separate risk origination and risk ownership ensuring proper due diligence and accountability; (iv) instinct - the ability to avoid following the herd when there are systemic and pervasive risks;

66 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (v) independence - the ability to view the regulated entity independently from its environment; and (vi) interconnectivity - the ability to identify and understand how risks are related, especially when their relatedness might exacerbate the risk. 43. The board must have in place a risk management policy which must be reviewed regularly, but at least every three years, and must include – (a) the identification of risks facing the regulated entity; (b) the assessment of the likelihood of each such risk on the regulated entity; (c) the assessment of the impact of each such risk to the regulated entity; (d) the process or controls necessary to reduce the impact of key risks; (e) the monitoring of the risk process or controls to ensure that they are appropriate; and (f) the communication to the stakeholders of the regulated entity’s risk management policy, including the identification of the key risks and the processes or controls in place to prevent, eliminate or manage them. 44. The board must ensure that the regulated entity considers and implements appropriate risk responses. 45. The regulated entity must identify and consider different ways that it can respond to the risks identified during the risk assessment process and these responses must be noted in a risk register. 46. The regulated entity must be able to demonstrate that the risk management process provides for the identification and exploitation of opportunities to improve its performance. 47. The risks to be identified must not be limited to those which have a financial consequence, but must include risks which relate to the governance of the regulated entity, and which may jeopardise the governance structure. 48. The regulated entity is not expected to micro-manage the functions delegated to service providers, but those functions must, when delegated, contain sufficient detail to ensure that the service provider understands what is expected by the board and provide for reasonable right of recourse if there is any breach of the delegated functions by the service provider. 49. The board must receive assurance regarding the effectiveness of the risk management process for outsourced or delegated functions. 50. The board must ensure that there are processes in place enabling complete, timely, relevant, accurate and accessible risk disclosure to relevant stakeholders. Regulated entity expenses 51. The board must perform regular review of services, against set performance standards, fees and all costs associated with the operation of the regulated entity to ensure that they are appropriate. 52. The board must ensure that the costs and expenses of the regulated entity are managed efficiently.

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 67 PART 3: MANAGEMENT OF STAKEHOLDER RELATIONSHIPS Regulated entity information and access to regulated entity information 53. Subject to the Act, the board must ensure that – (a) directors have unrestricted access to all relevant information relating to the regulated entity to enable them to make informed decisions; (b) all regulated entity information is confidential and must not be released to any person unless such person has a lawful right thereto, and where this information is held by a service provider, the service provider will preserve its confidentiality and return the information to the regulated entity when the relationship with the service provider is terminated; (c) the board is the ultimate custodian of the corporate reputation and stakeholder relationships and the board must take account of and respond to the legitimate interests and expectations of stakeholders in its decision-making; (d) stakeholder interests and expectations, even if not considered warranted or legitimate, must be dealt with and not ignored; and (e) communication with relevant stakeholders, must be responded to promptly by or on behalf of the board and with thoroughness. Information technology governance 54. The regulated entity must understand the strategic importance of information technology and manage the associated risks, benefits and constraints and the responsibility for the information technology function must be assumed by the board. 55. Information technology must be aligned with the performance and sustainability objectives of the regulated entity. 56. The board must ensure that information and information technology assets are managed effectively. 57. Where the administrative function of information technology is outsourced to a service provider, the board must obtain the necessary assurances and satisfy itself that the information technology risks are managed effectively by the service provider in accordance with best practice principles of information technology governance and risk management. 58. The risk or audit function must consider information technology risk as a crucial element of the effective oversight of the risk management of the regulated entity. 59. In understanding and measuring information technology risks, the risk or audit function must understand the regulated entity’s overall exposure to information technology risk from a strategic and business perspective, including the areas of the business that are most dependent on information technology for effective and continual operation. Reporting 60. Reporting channels between all the persons and entities involved in the governance of the regulated entity must be established to ensure the effective and timely transmission of relevant and accurate information.

68 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 Disclosure 61. The board must disclose relevant information to relevant persons, notably employees, clients, supervisory authorities and auditors, in a clear, accurate and timely manner. Non-compliance 62. NAMFISA may take appropriate enforcement action in terms of Part 6 of Chapter 10 of the Act for non-compliance with this Standard. _________________________________________________________________________

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 69 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS MANNER AND FORM OF APPLICATION FOR RECOGNITION AS A SELF-REGULATORY ORGANISATION PURSUANT TO SECTION 136(2) Standard No. FM.S.3.13 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(2)(c), read with section 136, of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021

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Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard – (a) “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act; (b) “key person” means the directors, members of a board, principal officers, officers, trustees, custodians, auditors, valuators, and includes those individuals or other entities holding more than 25% of the financial institution or financial intermediary’s voting rights; and (c) “NAMFISA ERS” means the Electronic Regulatory System which facilitates communication between NAMFISA and financial institutions or financial intermediaries. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, the following – (a) as defined in section 1 of the Act – (i) banking institution; (ii) board; (iii) director; (iv) document; (v) NAMFISA; and (vi) public company. (b) as defined in section 78 of the Act – (i) recognised self-regulatory organisation; and (ii) self-regulatory organisation. Applicability
2. This Standard applies to a public company applying for recognition as a self￾regulatory organisation in terms of sections 136(1) and (2) of the Act (hereinafter referred to as “applicant”).
3. An application for recognition as a self-regulatory organisation must be made to NAMFISA in accordance with clause 4.

70 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 Particulars to be furnished upon application 4. An application for recognition as a self-regulatory organisation must be – (a) in writing, and provide the particulars as specified in the Schedule, Application form for recognition as a self-regulatory organisation pursuant to section 136 of the Act; (b) signed by a person duly authorised to represent the applicant; (c) accompanied by proof of registration as a Namibian company with the Registrar of Companies (BIPA) (CM 1 form); (d) accompanied by its Memorandum and Articles of Association (CM 2 and CM 44 forms); (e) accompanied by a Certificate to commence business (CM 46 form); (f) accompanied with the details of all directors (CM 29 form); (g) accompanied by the relevant completed parts and other information required pursuant to Standard No. GEN.S.10.2 – Fit and Proper Requirements; (h) accompanied by the applicant’s company organogram and confirmation of operational systems; (i) accompanied by bank confirmation letter from its banking institution; (j) accompanied with details of its nominee company (if applicable); (k) accompanied by a board resolution authorising the applicant’s representative to apply for recognition on behalf of the applicant; (l) accompanied by a detailed business plan, and if the company is already operational, audited financial statements for the past three years; (m) accompanied at minimum by proof of sufficient paid-up capital and unimpaired reserves for the proper exercise or carrying out the powers and duties as a recognised self-regulatory organisation; (n) accompanied by a Tax Certificate from the Namibia Revenue Agency (NamRA); (o) accompanied by a certified copy of the appointment letter of the applicant’s auditor; and (p) accompanied by proof of payment of the required application fee. 5. The applicant must disclose all information as required in the Schedule and all parts must be duly completed. 6. (1) An application incomplete in all respects and not conforming to the instructions specified in the Schedule may be rejected on the basis of being non-compliant with this Standard.

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 71 (2) In instances where the application is deemed incomplete, NAMFISA must give the applicant the opportunity to provide the required information to complete the application. The required information must be provided within seven days, or such other period stipulated or agreed to by NAMFISA, failing which the application shall be rejected. 7. Nothing shall prevent NAMFISA from seeking further or additional information or documents as may be reasonably necessary for processing of the application for recognition. 8. The applicant or its duly authorised representative may, if so required, be called to appear before NAMFISA for a personal representation in connection with the application. Submission 9. (1) An application for recognition must be submitted to NAMFISA electronically on the NAMFISA ERS. (2) Where necessary and when so directed by NAMFISA, the applicant must submit specified documentation manually to NAMFISA. SUPPORTING SCHEDULE The following supporting schedule is attached to and forms part of this Standard: Schedule: APPLICATION FORM FOR RECOGNITION AS A SELF-REGULATORY ORGANISATION PURSUANT TO SECTION 136 OF THE ACT

72 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 SCHEDULE (to Standard No. FM.S.3.13) APPLICATION FORM FOR RECOGNITION AS A SELF-REGULATORY ORGANISATION PURSUANT TO SECTION 136 OF THE ACT PART 1: COMPANY INFORMATION SECTION 1: GENERAL 1.1 Full registered name: ____________________________________________________ 1.2 Previously registered name(s), if any: _______________________________________ 1.3 Trading name(s): ________________________________________________________ 1.4 Company registration No.: ________________________________________________ 1.5 Country of registration: ___________________________________________________ 1.6 Income Tax registration No. and VAT registration No., if applicable: ______________ 1.7 Financial year-end of the company: _________________________________________ 1.8 Details of other businesses (if any) the applicant is engaged in other than the business for which recognition is being applied for:_______________________________________

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1.9 Registered address of the company: _________________________________________ 1.10 Principal office address: __________________________________________________ 1.11 Postal address: __________________________________________________________ 1.12 Telephone No: __________________________________________________________ 1.13 Website, if any: _________________________________________________________ 1.14 Email address: __________________________________________________________ 1.15 Is the company subject to regulation in a foreign country or a financial services intermediary in a foreign country? __________________________________________ 1.16 If yes, which jurisdiction? _________________________________________________ 1.17 Name of foreign regulator(s)? ______________________________________________

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 73 SECTION 2: FINANCIAL RESOURCES We hereby confirm that the applicant has the following financial resources for the proper exercise or carrying out the powers and duties as a recognised self-regulatory organisation: Paid-up share capital Unimpaired reserves Amount N$ N$ SECTION 3: AUDITOR 3.1 Full name of appointed auditor: ____________________________________________ 3.2 Company Registration No.: _______________________________________________ 3.3 Auditor’s registration number with PAAB: ___________________________________ 31.4 Tax Reference No.: ______________________________________________________ 3.5 Contact person: _________________________________________________________ 3.6 Postal address: __________________________________________________________ 3.7 Physical address: ________________________________________________________ 3.8 Telephone No.: _________________________________________________________ 3.9 Email address: __________________________________________________________ 3.10 Website, if any: _________________________________________________________ SECTION 4: DIRECTORS AND OTHER KEY PERSONS <Provide details of each director or key person, using a separate sheet as attachment where appli￾cable> 4.1 Full names of director/key person: __________________________________________

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4.2 Identification/Passport No.: _______________________________________________ 4.3 Nationality: ____________________________________________________________ 4.4 Postal address: __________________________________________________________ 4.5 Telephone No.: _________________________________________________________ 4.6 Mobile No.: ____________________________________________________________ 4.7 Email address: __________________________________________________________ SECTION 5: SHAREHOLDERS OR OTHER OWNER THAT CONTROLS THE APPLICANT <Attach the full shareholder organigram. Provide details of each shareholder or other owner who controls the applicant, using a separate sheet as attachment where applicable; if it is a company, provide contact person’s details>

74 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 5.1 Full name/registered name of shareholder: ____________________________________ 5.2 Previous surname(s) / previously registered name(s): ___________________________ 5.3 Identification/Passport/Company registration No.: _____________________________ 5.4 Date of birth/ Date of incorporation: ________________________________________ 5.5 Nationality/Country of incorporation:________________________________________ 5.6 Postal address: __________________________________________________________ 5.7 Telephone No.: _________________________________________________________ 5.8 Mobile No.: ____________________________________________________________ 5.9 Email address of contact person: ___________________________________________ 5.10 Shareholding percentage: _________________________________________________ If more than one such shareholder or owner, please complete and attach share certificate and indicate % held by each: Name Individual Company Partnership Joint Venture Close Corpo￾ration Other % held by each SECTION 6: HOLDING COMPANY OF THE APPLICANT (IF APPLICABLE) 6.1 Full registered name: ____________________________________________________ 6.2 Previously registered name(s): _____________________________________________ 6.3 Company registration No.: ________________________________________________ 6.4 Date of incorporation: ____________________________________________________ 6.5 Country of incorporation: _________________________________________________ 6.6 Postal address: __________________________________________________________ 6.7 Registered address: ______________________________________________________ 6.8 Telephone No.: _________________________________________________________ 6.9 Email address of shareholder or contact person: _______________________________ 6.10 Shareholders: __________________________________________________________ If more than one holding company, please complete and attach share certificate and indicate % held by each:

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 75 Name Individual Company Partnership Joint Venture Close Corpo￾ration Other % held by each SECTION 7: APPOINTED PRINCIPAL OFFICER 7.1 Full names: ____________________________________________________________ 7.2 Identification/Passport No.: _______________________________________________ 7.3 Nationality: ____________________________________________________________ 7.4 Postal address: __________________________________________________________ 7.5 Telephone No.: _________________________________________________________ 7.6 Mobile No.: ____________________________________________________________ 7.7 Email address: __________________________________________________________ SECTION 8: BANK DETAILS (operational account) <Proof of bank account to be attached> 8.1 Name of bank: _________________________________________________________ 8.2 Branch name: __________________________________________________________ 8.3 Account No.: ___________________________________________________________ 8.4 Branch code: ___________________________________________________________ PART 2: OPERATIONAL ABILITY OF APPLICANT SECTION 1: BUSINESS PLAN The business plan of the applicant, that has been approved by the board must at least deal with the following matters: (a) Provide an overview of the company’s business operations (company profile, details and operations of its members and their representatives, future growth, etc.), draft Rules, Corporate Governance Framework, Agreements with Service Providers (internal and external), Marketing Plan, Human Resources Plan, etc.; (b) Governance arrangements that are clear and transparent, promote the safety and efficiency of its infrastructure, and support the stability of the broader financial system, other relevant public interest considerations, and the objectives of relevant stakeholders;

76 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 (c) Arrangements for the efficient and effective surveillance of all transactions effected through its infrastructure and for the supervision of its members so as to identify possible market inefficiencies and discrepancies and ensure compliance with the requirements, relevant rules and directives and the Act; (d) Arrangements to efficiently and effectively supervise and monitor its members to ensure compliance with the Act and any other applicable financial services law; (e) An explanation of the management and operational structure of the applicant including the names of the individuals responsible for the major functional areas and the number of personnel employed or to be employed in each functional area in the applicant; (f) The planned development of the information technology systems and infrastructure of the applicant and arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance, upgrading and security including details pertaining to the method or facility by means of which the business will be carried on; (g) The planned approach to qualifying, quantifying and managing risk associated with the applicant’s operations (Risk Management Framework, Internal Control Framework, Business Continuity Plan); (h) Security procedures to ensure the integrity of the systems for recording transactions and the maintenance of records effected through its infrastructure, and the back-up resources available in the event of a systems failure; (i) Arrangements for insurance, a guarantee, compensation fund or other warranty in place to enable it to provide compensation to clients; (j) Demonstration that it has effective and reliable infrastructure necessary to facilitate smooth conduct of its operations; and (k) A report by the chairperson of the board confirming that the applicant has adequate systems, procedures and policies in place to safeguard client information, data, records and documents from unauthorised access, alteration, destruction or dissemination. PART 3: ADDITIONAL ATTACHMENTS YES NO Proof of registration as a Namibian Company with the Registrar of Companies (BIPA) (CM 1 form) Certified copies of the applicant’s Memorandum and Articles of Association and articles (CM 2 and CM 44 forms) Certificate to commence business (CM 46 form) Details of all directors (CM 29 form) Completed parts and other information required pursuant to Standard No. GEN.S.10.2 – Fit and Proper Requirements Company’s organogram and confirmation of operational systems Bank confirmation letter from its banking institution Details of nominee company (if applicable) Board resolution authorising the applicant’s representative to apply for recognition on behalf of the applicant Detailed business plan approved by the board

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 77 Proof of paid-up capital and unimpaired reserves Tax certificate from NamRA A certified copy of the appointment letter of the applicant’s auditor Proof of payment of the required application fee SIGNATURE OF THE PRINCIPAL OFFICER OR DULY AUTHORISED PERSON By signing the document, I confirm that all the information contained in this application is true and correct and can be relied upon and I have disclosed all necessary material information that may be required by NAMFISA. Full Name: _________________________________________________________________ Capacity: __________________________________________________________________ Signature: __________________________________________________________________ Date: ______________________________________________________________________

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78 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 8904 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 FINANCIAL MARKETS FORM OF CERTIFICATE OF RECOGNITION AS A SELF-REGULATORY OR￾GANISATION PURSUANT TO SECTION 136 OF THE ACT Standard No. FM.S.3.14 issued by NAMFISA under section 410(2)(b), read with section 136(7), of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 Definitions

1. (1) In this Standard, “Act” means the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021 (Act No. 2 of 2021), and it must be read with the regulations prescribed under the Act and the standards and other subordinate measures issued by NAMFISA under the Act. (2) Words and phrases defined in the Act have the same meaning in this Standard, unless the context indicates otherwise, including without limitation, “self-regulatory organisation” defined in section 78(1) of the Act. Applicability
2. This Standard applies to all self-regulatory organisations applying for recognition pursuant to section 136 of the Act. Form of certificate of recognition
3. The certificate of recognition to be issued to a self-regulatory organisation must take the form of the Annexure attached to this Standard.

8904 Government Gazette 30 April 2026 79 ANNEXURE (to Standard No. FM.S.3.14) Registration No .…………………… CERTIFICATE OF RECOGNITION FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND MARKETS ACT, 2021 (ACT NO. 2 OF 2021) RECOGNITION AS SELF-REGULATORY ORGANISATION This is to certify that _________________________________________________________________ (insert the name) with principal office at: _________________________________ (insert address of principal office), has been duly recognised as a self-regulatory organisation in terms of section 136 of the Financial Institutions and Markets Act, 2021.

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CHIEF EXECUTIVE OFFICER DATE OF RECOGNITION

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